Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention in the treatment of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. This is essential for fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering intravenous insulin can lead to further potassium depletion without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but should follow fluid resuscitation to avoid life-threatening hypokalemia. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is necessary to assess the acid-base status but is not the initial priority when managing DKA.

2. The client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being taught about managing blood glucose levels. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will rotate my insulin injection sites to avoid tissue damage.
• B. I will monitor my blood glucose levels before each meal.
• C. I can eat unlimited fruit as it is healthy.
• D. I should carry a fast-acting carbohydrate with me at all times.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stating 'I can eat unlimited fruit as it is healthy' is incorrect. While fruits are healthy, they also contain natural sugars that can affect blood glucose levels. Portion control is crucial to managing blood glucose levels effectively. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate correct understanding. Rotating insulin injection sites helps prevent tissue damage, monitoring blood glucose levels before meals aids in managing diabetes effectively, and carrying a fast-acting carbohydrate is essential to treat hypoglycemia promptly.

3. A client is receiving levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings would indicate that the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Increased weight
• C. Increased energy levels
• D. Decreased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased energy levels. When a client with hypothyroidism is receiving levothyroxine, increased energy levels indicate that thyroid hormone levels are being normalized, which is a positive response to treatment. This improvement reflects the effectiveness of the medication in addressing the underlying hypothyroidism. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Decreased heart rate and decreased appetite may be symptoms of hypothyroidism and would not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of levothyroxine. Increased weight could also be a symptom of hypothyroidism and does not directly reflect the medication's effectiveness.

4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

5. A female client with physical findings suggestive of a hyperpituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, necessitating a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the surgery, Nurse Jacob reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions provided to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize?

• A. You must lie flat for 24 hours after surgery.
• B. You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose.
• C. You must restrict your fluid intake.
• D. You must report ringing in your ears immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, it is crucial to avoid activities such as coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose to prevent an increase in intracranial pressure or the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Coughing, sneezing, or nose blowing can strain the surgical site, potentially leading to complications. Lying flat for 24 hours is not typically required after this surgery. Fluid intake should be encouraged to prevent dehydration. Ringing in the ears is not a common complication associated with this type of surgery.

Similar Questions