Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention in the treatment of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. This is essential for fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering intravenous insulin can lead to further potassium depletion without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but should follow fluid resuscitation to avoid life-threatening hypokalemia. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is necessary to assess the acid-base status but is not the initial priority when managing DKA.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The nurse suspects diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following lab findings would confirm this diagnosis?

• A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
• B. Serum bicarbonate of 22 mEq/L
• C. Blood pH of 7.25
• D. Urine specific gravity of 1.020

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood pH of 7.25 is a critical finding in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) as it indicates metabolic acidosis, which is a hallmark of this condition. In DKA, there is an accumulation of ketones in the blood, leading to increased acidity. The serum glucose level is typically elevated in DKA, often exceeding 250 mg/dL. A serum bicarbonate level less than 18 mEq/L is usually seen in DKA due to the metabolic acidosis. Urine specific gravity is not a specific indicator for DKA and may vary depending on the individual's hydration status. Therefore, the correct lab finding that confirms DKA in this scenario is a blood pH of 7.25.

3. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

• A. Tetanic contractions
• B. Neck vein distention
• C. Weight loss
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

4. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

• A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
• B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
• C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
• D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

5. The client with DM who is taking insulin develops a fever and becomes confused. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Administer a fever-reducing medication.
• C. Give the client fluids to drink.
• D. Notify the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) taking insulin, the development of fever and confusion may indicate hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Checking the blood glucose level is the priority action in this situation. This will help determine if the symptoms are related to high blood sugar levels, guiding further interventions. Administering a fever-reducing medication (choice B) addresses only the symptom of fever and does not address the underlying cause. Providing fluids to drink (choice C) is important but should come after addressing the potential hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Notifying the health care provider (choice D) can be important, but immediate action to evaluate and manage the client's condition should precede contacting the provider.

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