Nursing Elites

1. In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

• A. Adrenal cortex
• B. Pancreas
• C. Adrenal medulla
• D. Parathyroid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by promoting sodium and water retention in the kidneys. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in the 'fight or flight' response, not in regulating blood pressure. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones involved in blood sugar regulation, not blood pressure. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the blood, not blood pressure.

2. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake
• B. Administer vasopressin
• C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• D. Restrict oral fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. SIADH leads to excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the body to retain water and diluting the sodium levels in the blood (hyponatremia). Restricting oral fluids helps prevent further water retention and worsening hyponatremia. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) would exacerbate the problem by further diluting sodium levels. Administering vasopressin (choice B) is not indicated in SIADH, as the condition is characterized by excess ADH secretion. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (choice C) is not the priority in SIADH since the issue is water retention rather than dehydration.

4. The client with Addison's disease is receiving education on managing the condition. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Increase your sodium intake during periods of stress.
• B. Avoid all types of exercise.
• C. Decrease your fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• D. Stop corticosteroid therapy once symptoms improve.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include for a client with Addison's disease is to increase sodium intake during periods of stress. In Addison's disease, there is a deficiency of aldosterone leading to sodium loss. Increasing sodium intake helps to compensate for this loss and prevent complications. Choice B is incorrect as exercise is beneficial for overall health but should be done in moderation. Choice C is incorrect as fluid intake should be adequate to prevent dehydration since clients with Addison's disease are prone to electrolyte imbalances. Choice D is incorrect as corticosteroid therapy is essential for managing Addison's disease and should not be discontinued abruptly without medical guidance.

5. Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority for a female client with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Risk for imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess
• B. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to edema, skin fragility, and poor wound healing
• C. Body image disturbance related to weight gain and edema
• D. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess. In hyperthyroidism, increased metabolic rate leads to increased nutritional needs, causing weight loss and muscle wasting. Therefore, addressing imbalanced nutrition due to excessive thyroid hormone is a priority. Choice A is incorrect as hyperthyroidism typically leads to weight loss, not weight gain. Choice B is less of a priority as skin issues are secondary to the metabolic disturbances caused by hyperthyroidism. Choice C, body image disturbance, is important but addressing the client's nutritional needs should take precedence to prevent further complications.

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