Nursing Elites

1. Which advice is most beneficial for a new nurse manager?

• A. Strive to embody the manager your staff desires while also aligning with your administration's expectations.
• B. Keep in mind that it may take 6 months to feel at ease in a new role.
• C. Begin by mentoring other novice nurse managers.
• D. Participate in substantial personal growth endeavors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most helpful advice for a new nurse manager is to understand that it can take up to 6 months to feel comfortable in a new position. This allows the individual to manage their expectations and give themselves time to adapt to their new role. Choice A may be overwhelming and could cause conflicting priorities for the new nurse manager. Choice C, while valuable, might not be the immediate focus for someone new to the role. Choice D, although important, may not be as time-sensitive as the adjustment period in the new position.

2. In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

• A. Adrenal cortex
• B. Pancreas
• C. Adrenal medulla
• D. Parathyroid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by promoting sodium and water retention in the kidneys. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in the 'fight or flight' response, not in regulating blood pressure. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones involved in blood sugar regulation, not blood pressure. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the blood, not blood pressure.

3. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicates an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?

• A. The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon.
• B. The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat.
• C. The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast.
• D. The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in the afternoon may coincide with the peak action of NPH insulin, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia. The peak action of NPH insulin typically occurs 4-12 hours after administration, so exercising during this time can further lower blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are better options as they suggest exercising at times that are less likely to overlap with the peak insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia.

4. A client with DM is being taught about the importance of monitoring blood glucose levels. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor blood glucose:

• A. Before meals and at bedtime.
• B. Only after meals.
• C. Only in the morning.
• D. Only when feeling unwell.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels before meals and at bedtime. This timing allows for a comprehensive understanding of how the body responds to food intake and to assess fasting glucose levels. Monitoring blood glucose only after meals (Choice B) may miss important pre-meal fluctuations. Checking glucose levels only in the morning (Choice C) overlooks the impact of meals throughout the day. Monitoring blood glucose only when feeling unwell (Choice D) is reactive and does not provide consistent data for managing diabetes effectively. Therefore, monitoring blood glucose before meals and at bedtime helps in maintaining good glucose control and preventing complications.

5. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

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