Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 2 DM is being treated with metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take the medication before bedtime.
• D. Avoid taking the medication if you miss a meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking metformin (Glucophage) is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improves absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as missing a meal should not lead to avoiding the medication, but the client should take it with the next meal as prescribed.

2. A client is taking NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse instructs the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2-4 hours after administration
• B. 6-14 hours after administration
• C. 16-18 hours after administration
• D. 18-24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 6-14 hours after administration. NPH insulin has an onset of action within 1-2 hours, a peak action at 6-14 hours, and a duration of action of 16-24 hours. The peak action period, which is when the risk of hypoglycemia is highest, falls between 6-14 hours after administration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical action profile of NPH insulin.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake
• B. Administer vasopressin
• C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• D. Restrict oral fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. SIADH leads to excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the body to retain water and diluting the sodium levels in the blood (hyponatremia). Restricting oral fluids helps prevent further water retention and worsening hyponatremia. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) would exacerbate the problem by further diluting sodium levels. Administering vasopressin (choice B) is not indicated in SIADH, as the condition is characterized by excess ADH secretion. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (choice C) is not the priority in SIADH since the issue is water retention rather than dehydration.

4. A 67-year-old male client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with his ability to go outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, Nurse Richard would suspect which of the following disorders?

• A. Diabetes mellitus
• B. Diabetes insipidus
• C. Hypoparathyroidism
• D. Hyperparathyroidism

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario, such as bone pain, increased urination, anorexia, and weakness, are indicative of hyperparathyroidism. In hyperparathyroidism, there is an excess of parathyroid hormone leading to increased calcium levels, which can result in bone pain and various systemic effects. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the symptoms presented by the client. Diabetes mellitus primarily presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and hyperglycemia. Diabetes insipidus manifests as polyuria and polydipsia with dilute urine. Hypoparathyroidism usually presents with hypocalcemia, causing symptoms like muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and seizures.

5. Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he's impotent and says he's concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:

• A. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality.
• B. Provide time for privacy.
• C. Provide support for the spouse or significant other.
• D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a postoperative male client with diabetes mellitus who reports impotence and concerns about its impact on his marriage is to suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. Impotence can have significant emotional and relational effects, and a sex counselor is specifically trained to address such concerns. Encouraging the client to ask questions about personal sexuality (Choice A) may not provide the specialized support needed in this situation. Providing time for privacy (Choice B) is important but may not directly address the client's concerns about impotence. Providing support for the spouse or significant other (Choice C) is valuable but may not be as effective as seeking professional help to address the client's specific issue of impotence.

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