Nursing Elites

1. What is the nurse's responsibility when dealing with an impaired colleague?

• A. The nurse should report the colleague to a supervisor and follow the institution's policy for addressing impaired practice.
• B. The nurse should confront the colleague directly and offer support to seek help for the impairment.
• C. Nonmaleficence
• D. The nurse should ignore the colleague's behavior and focus on their own responsibilities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse encounters an impaired colleague, the appropriate action is to report the behavior to a supervisor and follow the institution's policy for addressing impaired practice. This ensures patient safety and upholds professional standards. Choice B is incorrect because confronting the colleague directly may not be appropriate or effective in addressing the issue, and the colleague may need more structured assistance. Choice C is a principle of ethical practice but does not directly address the specific situation of dealing with an impaired colleague. Choice D is incorrect because ignoring the colleague's behavior could potentially compromise patient safety and is not in line with professional responsibility.

2. The client is NPO and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a subclavian line. Which precautions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Place the solution on an IV pump at the prescribed rate.
• B. Monitor blood glucose every twelve (12) hours.
• C. Weigh the client weekly, first thing in the morning.
• D. Change the IV tubing every three (3) days.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Precautions for clients receiving TPN include placing the solution on an IV pump to control the rate, monitoring blood glucose levels to detect hyperglycemia, and monitoring intake and output to assess fluid balance. Changing the IV tubing every three days is not a standard precaution for clients receiving TPN via a subclavian line.

3. Which of the following clinical findings would be most concerning in a client with hypothyroidism?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Dry skin
• C. Constipation
• D. Depression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia in a client with hypothyroidism is the most concerning finding as it may indicate severe hypothyroidism, leading to decreased heart rate. Bradycardia can be a sign of myxedema coma, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Dry skin, constipation, and depression are common symptoms associated with hypothyroidism but are not as acutely concerning as bradycardia.

4. The client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Leukopenia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.

5. A client with hyperthyroidism is receiving radioactive iodine therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypothyroidism. Radioactive iodine therapy is used to treat hyperthyroidism by destroying thyroid tissue and reducing hormone production. This can lead to an underactive thyroid, resulting in hypothyroidism. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is an elevated potassium level, usually not associated with radioactive iodine therapy. Hyponatremia (choice C) is a low sodium level, which is also not a common side effect of this therapy. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an elevated calcium level, unrelated to radioactive iodine therapy for hyperthyroidism.

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