Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse instructs the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2-4 hours after administration
• B. 6-14 hours after administration
• C. 16-18 hours after administration
• D. 18-24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 6-14 hours after administration. NPH insulin has an onset of action within 1-2 hours, a peak action at 6-14 hours, and a duration of action of 16-24 hours. The peak action period, which is when the risk of hypoglycemia is highest, falls between 6-14 hours after administration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical action profile of NPH insulin.

2. The client with hyperparathyroidism is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?

• A. Bananas
• B. Spinach
• C. Milk
• D. Processed meats

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with hyperparathyroidism should avoid high-calcium foods like milk because they already have elevated calcium levels. Bananas and spinach are not high in calcium and can be included in the diet. Processed meats are not specifically contraindicated in hyperparathyroidism, so they are not the correct answer.

3. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?

• A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
• B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
• C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
• D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.

4. The client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Leukopenia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.

5. The client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being educated about lifestyle modifications. Which of the following recommendations is appropriate?

• A. Avoiding all forms of physical exercise
• B. Limiting carbohydrate intake to less than 30 grams per day
• C. Increasing physical activity to help control blood glucose levels
• D. Consuming a high-protein, low-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase physical activity to help control blood glucose levels. Physical activity is essential in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus as it helps improve insulin sensitivity, control weight, and regulate blood sugar levels. Avoiding all forms of physical exercise (Choice A) is incorrect as exercise plays a crucial role in diabetes management. While limiting carbohydrate intake (Choice B) can be beneficial, setting a strict limit of less than 30 grams per day is too restrictive and may not be suitable for everyone. Consuming a high-protein, low-fat diet (Choice D) is generally a healthy choice, but it is not the primary lifestyle modification recommended for managing type 2 diabetes mellitus.

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