Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse instructs the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2-4 hours after administration
• B. 6-14 hours after administration
• C. 16-18 hours after administration
• D. 18-24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 6-14 hours after administration. NPH insulin has an onset of action within 1-2 hours, a peak action at 6-14 hours, and a duration of action of 16-24 hours. The peak action period, which is when the risk of hypoglycemia is highest, falls between 6-14 hours after administration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical action profile of NPH insulin.

2. A client with type 2 DM is being taught about the importance of foot care. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Wear comfortable shoes that allow air circulation.
• B. Walk barefoot whenever possible.
• C. Use a heating pad to warm your feet.
• D. Soak your feet in hot water every night.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) regarding foot care is to wear comfortable shoes that allow air circulation. This recommendation helps prevent foot injuries and infections, which are common concerns for individuals with diabetes. Choice B, walking barefoot, can increase the risk of injuries and wounds due to reduced sensation in the feet often seen in diabetes. Choice C, using a heating pad, can lead to burns or skin damage if the temperature is not carefully monitored, making it an unsafe practice. Choice D, soaking feet in hot water every night, can also be harmful as it can cause burns and dry out the skin, leading to further complications for individuals with diabetes. Therefore, the most appropriate and safe advice is to wear comfortable shoes that promote air circulation to maintain foot health and prevent complications.

3. The client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Leukopenia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.

4. The client with DM is being taught about the signs of hyperglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse include?

• A. Excessive thirst
• B. Sweating
• C. Shaking
• D. Hunger

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excessive thirst, also known as polydipsia, is a hallmark symptom of hyperglycemia. When blood glucose levels are high, the body tries to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, leading to increased urination and subsequent thirst. Sweating, shaking, and hunger are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Sweating can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low, shaking is a sign of hypoglycemia, and hunger is often a result of low blood sugar levels triggering the body to seek fuel.

5. A nurse manager is focusing on improving communication on the unit. Which of the following best describes the importance of this focus?

• A. The nurse manager's focus on communication is essential to ensure that all staff members are informed, understand their roles, and can work together effectively to provide quality care.
• B. The nurse manager's focus on communication is important to ensure that information is shared effectively and that there is a clear understanding of roles and responsibilities on the unit.
• C. The nurse manager's focus on communication is crucial to ensuring that all staff members are working together effectively and that there is a shared understanding of the unit's goals and priorities.
• D. The nurse manager's focus on communication is vital to creating an open and transparent environment where staff members feel comfortable sharing information and concerns.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective communication is essential for ensuring that all staff members are informed, understand their roles, and can collaborate effectively to provide quality care. Choice B focuses more on information sharing and understanding roles but lacks emphasis on effective teamwork and quality care provision. Choice C mentions staff working together effectively and understanding unit goals, but it does not explicitly highlight the importance of staff being informed and understanding their roles. Choice D emphasizes creating an open environment for sharing information and concerns, which is important but does not encompass the broader aspects of effective communication as described in choice A.

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