Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse instructs the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

• A. 2-4 hours after administration
• B. 6-14 hours after administration
• C. 16-18 hours after administration
• D. 18-24 hours after administration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 6-14 hours after administration. NPH insulin has an onset of action within 1-2 hours, a peak action at 6-14 hours, and a duration of action of 16-24 hours. The peak action period, which is when the risk of hypoglycemia is highest, falls between 6-14 hours after administration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical action profile of NPH insulin.

2. Nurse Kate is providing dietary instructions to a male client with hypoglycemia. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should recommend:

• A. Increasing saturated fat intake and fasting in the afternoon
• B. Increasing intake of vitamins B and D and taking iron supplements
• C. Eating a candy bar if lightheadedness occurs
• D. Consuming a low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet and avoiding fasting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet is beneficial for individuals with hypoglycemia as it helps in maintaining stable blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect as increasing saturated fat intake and fasting can worsen hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect as vitamins and iron supplements do not directly address hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as consuming a candy bar may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause of hypoglycemia.

3. The client with DM is being taught about the signs of hyperglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse include?

• A. Excessive thirst
• B. Sweating
• C. Shaking
• D. Hunger

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excessive thirst, also known as polydipsia, is a hallmark symptom of hyperglycemia. When blood glucose levels are high, the body tries to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, leading to increased urination and subsequent thirst. Sweating, shaking, and hunger are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Sweating can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low, shaking is a sign of hypoglycemia, and hunger is often a result of low blood sugar levels triggering the body to seek fuel.

4. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?

• A. Widened T wave
• B. Prominent U wave
• C. Prolonged QT interval
• D. Shortened ST segment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hypocalcemia, a decreased level of calcium can lead to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG due to its role in myocardial repolarization. A widened T wave (Choice A) is typically seen in hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave (Choice B) is associated with hypokalemia. A shortened ST segment (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypocalcemia.

5. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?

• A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision.
• B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements.
• C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff.
• D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.

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