Nursing Elites

1. How often should rotation sites for insulin injection be separated from one another?

• A. Every third day.
• B. Every week.
• C. Every 2-3 weeks.
• D. Every 2-4 weeks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Insulin injection sites should be rotated every 2-3 weeks to prevent lipodystrophy and ensure proper insulin absorption. Option A ('Every third day') is too frequent and does not allow enough time for the previous site to heal properly. Option B ('Every week') might not provide adequate time for the tissue to recover. Option D ('Every 2-4 weeks') could potentially lead to overuse of a single injection site, increasing the risk of lipodystrophy and inconsistent insulin absorption. Therefore, the recommended interval of every 2-3 weeks is optimal for insulin injection site rotation.

2. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

3. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake
• B. Administer vasopressin
• C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• D. Restrict oral fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. SIADH leads to excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the body to retain water and diluting the sodium levels in the blood (hyponatremia). Restricting oral fluids helps prevent further water retention and worsening hyponatremia. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) would exacerbate the problem by further diluting sodium levels. Administering vasopressin (choice B) is not indicated in SIADH, as the condition is characterized by excess ADH secretion. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (choice C) is not the priority in SIADH since the issue is water retention rather than dehydration.

5. A client with DM is taking regular and NPH insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instruction to the client?

• A. Take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin.
• B. Take the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
• C. Mix the insulins in a separate syringe.
• D. Take the regular insulin first and immediately follow it with the NPH insulin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin. Regular insulin should be administered before NPH insulin to prevent contamination and maintain the potency of each insulin type. Choice B is incorrect because NPH insulin should not be taken before regular insulin. Mixing the insulins in a separate syringe, as suggested in choice C, is not recommended as it may alter the effectiveness of the insulins. Choice D is also incorrect as taking the regular insulin first and immediately following it with NPH insulin is not the recommended administration sequence.

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