HESI RN
Leadership HESI
1. Early this morning, a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, Nurse Tina assesses the client, who now has nausea, a temperature of 105°F (40.5°C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
- B. Thyroid crisis
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Tetany
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thyroid crisis. Thyroid crisis, also known as thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition that can occur after a thyroidectomy. Symptoms include high fever, tachycardia, extreme restlessness, and other signs of severe hyperthyroidism. Diabetic ketoacidosis (choice A) is a complication of diabetes characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis, not typically seen post-thyroidectomy. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is low blood sugar levels and would not present with the symptoms described. Tetany (choice D) is a condition of involuntary muscle spasms due to low calcium levels and is not directly related to the symptoms observed in this scenario.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with this condition?
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hyperphosphatemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In hyperparathyroidism, there is an overproduction of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood (hypercalcemia). This occurs as the parathyroid hormone stimulates the release of calcium from the bones and enhances calcium absorption in the intestines and kidneys. Therefore, the correct answer is hypercalcemia (Choice B). Hypocalcemia (Choice A) is not consistent with hyperparathyroidism, as this condition is characterized by high calcium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice C) and hyperphosphatemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with hyperparathyroidism and are not primary manifestations of this condition.
3. A good relationship between a leader and a follower enables the follower to 'manage up.' Which of the following describes the best way for a follower to 'manage up'?
- A. Provide feedback to the unit manager when the manager asks for it.
- B. Assist your manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses.
- C. When a follower works with a manager with poor leadership skills, it is best to transfer to a different unit.
- D. Show respect and appreciation for the manager, even when speaking with coworkers.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Managing up involves building a positive relationship with one's manager by showing respect and appreciation. Choice A is not the best way to manage up as it only focuses on providing feedback when asked, rather than proactively showing respect. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests assisting the manager in capitalizing on their strengths and weaknesses, which is more about helping the manager rather than managing up. Choice C is not the best option as transferring to a different unit should not be the first step in managing up, as it does not address the relationship with the current manager. Therefore, the best way for a follower to manage up is by showing respect and appreciation for the manager, even in conversations with coworkers.
4. Albert, a 35-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic, is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. He has been febrile since admission. His daily insulin requirement is 24 units of NPH. Every morning Albert is given NPH insulin at 0730. Meals are served at 0830, 1230, and 1830. The nurse expects that the NPH insulin will reach its maximum effect (peak) between the hours of:
- A. 1130 and 1330.
- B. 1330 and 1930.
- C. 1530 and 2130.
- D. 1730 and 2330.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: NPH insulin typically peaks 4-12 hours after administration, so a peak between 1530 and 2130 would be expected. Choice A (1130 and 1330) is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice B (1330 and 1930) falls within the possible peak period but is not as accurate as choice C. Choice D (1730 and 2330) is too late for the peak effect of NPH insulin based on the typical peak timing.
5. A client with Cushing's syndrome is being assessed by the nurse. Which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with this condition?
- A. Moon face
- B. Weight loss
- C. Hyperpigmentation
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct clinical manifestation consistent with Cushing's syndrome is a 'moon face.' Cushing's syndrome is characterized by fat redistribution, leading to the round and full appearance of the face known as a moon face. Choice B, weight loss, is not common in Cushing's syndrome as patients often experience weight gain. Choice C, hyperpigmentation, is more indicative of Addison's disease, not Cushing's syndrome. Choice D, hypotension, is not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome which often presents with hypertension due to excess cortisol.
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