early this morning a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy during evening rounds nurse tina assesses the client who now has nausea a temperature
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Leadership HESI

1. Early this morning, a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, Nurse Tina assesses the client, who now has nausea, a temperature of 105°F (40.5°C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thyroid crisis. Thyroid crisis, also known as thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition that can occur after a thyroidectomy. Symptoms include high fever, tachycardia, extreme restlessness, and other signs of severe hyperthyroidism. Diabetic ketoacidosis (choice A) is a complication of diabetes characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis, not typically seen post-thyroidectomy. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is low blood sugar levels and would not present with the symptoms described. Tetany (choice D) is a condition of involuntary muscle spasms due to low calcium levels and is not directly related to the symptoms observed in this scenario.

2. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it describes an effective method of communication where a unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement. This approach fosters open dialogue, provides constructive feedback, and promotes professional growth. Choice B is incorrect as it only involves the explanation of departmental policies without engaging in a two-way communication process. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on policy introduction after safety events rather than individual feedback. Choice D is incorrect as it involves discussing safety events with another manager and policy improvement, but it does not directly address individual performance feedback, which is essential for effective communication and professional development.

3. To be effective, a nurse manager needs both managerial and leadership skills. Interpersonal activities have many concerns that overlap both leaders and managers. However, some interpersonal activities are needed by nurse managers, but are not specific duties of leaders. Which of the following is an interpersonal activity of nurse managers, but not necessarily all nurse leaders?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Resource allocation is an interpersonal activity specific to nurse managers because it involves managing the distribution of resources within the healthcare environment, which is not necessarily a duty for all leaders. While coaching, planning for the future, and monitoring are important skills for both leaders and managers, resource allocation is a task that is more specific to the managerial role of nurse managers.

4. The client with DM is being taught by the nurse about the importance of monitoring blood glucose levels. The nurse should instruct the client to:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. Monitoring blood glucose levels before meals allows the client to adjust their insulin or oral antidiabetic medications based on their current levels. Checking at bedtime helps in ensuring blood glucose levels are at a safe range throughout the night. Option A is incorrect because blood glucose should be monitored regularly as part of diabetes management, not just when feeling unwell. Option C is incorrect because checking only after meals does not provide a complete picture of blood glucose control throughout the day. Option D is incorrect as checking only in the morning does not cover the full spectrum of blood glucose variations that can occur during the day.

5. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oral antidiabetic agents are specifically designed for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy as the primary treatment due to the absence of endogenous insulin production. Therefore, these medications are not effective for individuals with type 1 diabetes like the male client in this scenario. Choice A is incorrect as oral antidiabetic agents are not about preference but rather about treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as being pregnant does not impact the effectiveness of oral antidiabetic agents; they are primarily indicated for type 2 diabetes.

Similar Questions

A client with Cushing's syndrome is scheduled for surgery to remove an adrenal tumor. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications postoperatively?
The client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?
The client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being educated about lifestyle modifications. Which of the following recommendations is appropriate?
The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being educated by the nurse about the signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following symptoms should the client be instructed to report immediately?
The healthcare professional is educating a client with Cushing's syndrome about dietary management. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

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