Nursing Elites

1. A client with Cushing's syndrome is scheduled for surgery to remove an adrenal tumor. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications postoperatively?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postoperative hypotension is a common complication after adrenal tumor removal in a client with Cushing's syndrome. This occurs due to the sudden withdrawal of cortisol, which leads to a relative adrenal insufficiency state. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is more common preoperatively due to excessive cortisol levels. Hypokalemia (Choice C) and Hyponatremia (Choice D) are also associated with Cushing's syndrome but are less likely to be immediate postoperative complications compared to hypotension.

2. Which instruction about insulin administration should Nurse Kate give to a client?

• A. Always follow the same order when drawing up different insulins into the syringe.
• B. Shake the vials before withdrawing the insulin.
• C. Store unopened vials of insulin in the refrigerator at recommended temperatures.
• D. Discard the intermediate-acting insulin if it appears cloudy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Consistently following the same order when drawing up different insulins helps to prevent medication errors. Option B is incorrect because shaking insulin vials could cause bubbles to form, leading to inaccurate dosing. Option C is incorrect as insulin should be stored in the refrigerator, not the freezer, to maintain its effectiveness. Option D is incorrect because cloudy appearance in intermediate-acting insulin may indicate the presence of insulin crystals, which can affect its potency, but this does not necessarily mean it should be discarded without consulting a healthcare provider.

3. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicates an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?

• A. The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon.
• B. The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat.
• C. The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast.
• D. The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in the afternoon may coincide with the peak action of NPH insulin, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia. The peak action of NPH insulin typically occurs 4-12 hours after administration, so exercising during this time can further lower blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are better options as they suggest exercising at times that are less likely to overlap with the peak insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia.

4. Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he's impotent and says he's concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:

• A. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality.
• B. Provide time for privacy.
• C. Provide support for the spouse or significant other.
• D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a postoperative male client with diabetes mellitus who reports impotence and concerns about its impact on his marriage is to suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. Impotence can have significant emotional and relational effects, and a sex counselor is specifically trained to address such concerns. Encouraging the client to ask questions about personal sexuality (Choice A) may not provide the specialized support needed in this situation. Providing time for privacy (Choice B) is important but may not directly address the client's concerns about impotence. Providing support for the spouse or significant other (Choice C) is valuable but may not be as effective as seeking professional help to address the client's specific issue of impotence.

5. A client with type 1 DM is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should prioritize which action?

• A. Administering intravenous fluids.
• B. Administering oral glucose.
• C. Administering a fever-reducing medication.
• D. Administering oxygen therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering intravenous fluids is the priority in treating DKA for several reasons. DKA is characterized by severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to hyperglycemia. IV fluids help to correct dehydration, restore electrolyte balance, and decrease blood glucose levels. Administering oral glucose (Choice B) would be contraindicated in DKA as the primary issue is high blood glucose levels. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice C) is not the priority in managing DKA. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances take precedence in the management of DKA.

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