Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with DM who is experiencing ketoacidosis. The nurse should prioritize which action?

• A. Administering insulin intravenously.
• B. Giving the client sips of water.
• C. Monitoring the client's urine output.
• D. Applying a heating pad to the client's abdomen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering insulin intravenously is the priority action for managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin helps lower blood glucose levels and halts the production of ketones, addressing the underlying cause of ketoacidosis. Giving sips of water (Choice B) may be necessary for hydration, but it does not address the immediate life-threatening issue of ketoacidosis. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) is important for assessing renal function but is not the priority over administering insulin. Applying a heating pad (Choice D) is not indicated and can potentially worsen the condition in ketoacidosis.

2. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

3. A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention in the body. This causes dilutional hyponatremia, where the sodium levels in the blood become abnormally low. Option A, Hypernatremia, is incorrect because SIADH does not cause elevated sodium levels. Option C, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as SIADH does not directly affect potassium levels. Option D, Hypercalcemia, is also incorrect as SIADH does not impact calcium levels.

4. The client with Addison's disease is receiving education on managing the condition. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Increase your sodium intake during periods of stress.
• B. Avoid all types of exercise.
• C. Decrease your fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• D. Stop corticosteroid therapy once symptoms improve.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include for a client with Addison's disease is to increase sodium intake during periods of stress. In Addison's disease, there is a deficiency of aldosterone leading to sodium loss. Increasing sodium intake helps to compensate for this loss and prevent complications. Choice B is incorrect as exercise is beneficial for overall health but should be done in moderation. Choice C is incorrect as fluid intake should be adequate to prevent dehydration since clients with Addison's disease are prone to electrolyte imbalances. Choice D is incorrect as corticosteroid therapy is essential for managing Addison's disease and should not be discontinued abruptly without medical guidance.

5. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?

• A. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement.
• B. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to explain departmental policies.
• C. A unit manager meets with staff after several safety events to introduce new policies aimed at preventing further safety events.
• D. A unit manager describes safety events that have occurred on the unit to another nurse manager and discusses ideas for policy improvement with the other manager.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it describes an effective method of communication where a unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement. This approach fosters open dialogue, provides constructive feedback, and promotes professional growth. Choice B is incorrect as it only involves the explanation of departmental policies without engaging in a two-way communication process. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on policy introduction after safety events rather than individual feedback. Choice D is incorrect as it involves discussing safety events with another manager and policy improvement, but it does not directly address individual performance feedback, which is essential for effective communication and professional development.

Similar Questions