Nursing Elites

1. A 67-year-old male client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with his ability to go outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, Nurse Richard would suspect which of the following disorders?

• A. Diabetes mellitus
• B. Diabetes insipidus
• C. Hypoparathyroidism
• D. Hyperparathyroidism

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario, such as bone pain, increased urination, anorexia, and weakness, are indicative of hyperparathyroidism. In hyperparathyroidism, there is an excess of parathyroid hormone leading to increased calcium levels, which can result in bone pain and various systemic effects. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the symptoms presented by the client. Diabetes mellitus primarily presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and hyperglycemia. Diabetes insipidus manifests as polyuria and polydipsia with dilute urine. Hypoparathyroidism usually presents with hypocalcemia, causing symptoms like muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and seizures.

2. Why is it important to control blood glucose levels in type 2 DM?

• A. Hypertension and kidney disease.
• B. Weight gain and obesity.
• C. Improved wound healing.
• D. Decreased cholesterol levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Controlling blood glucose levels in type 2 DM is crucial to prevent complications. High blood glucose levels can lead to hypertension and kidney disease, as seen in diabetic nephropathy and diabetic nephropathy. These are common complications of uncontrolled diabetes. Weight gain and obesity (choice B) are influenced by factors such as diet and physical activity rather than blood glucose levels. Improved wound healing (choice C) is not directly related to blood glucose control but can be affected by it indirectly. Decreased cholesterol levels (choice D) are not a direct consequence of high blood glucose levels and are more related to dietary and lifestyle factors.

3. Jemma, who weighs 210 lb (95 kg) and has been diagnosed with hyperglycemia tells the nurse that her husband sleeps in another room because her snoring keeps him awake. The nurse notices that she has large hands and a hoarse voice. Which of the following would the nurse suspect as a possible cause of the client's hyperglycemia?

• A. Acromegaly
• B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Deficient growth hormone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Acromegaly. Jemma's symptoms of large hands, hoarse voice, and snoring are indicative of acromegaly, a disorder caused by excessive growth hormone production. Acromegaly can lead to insulin resistance, which can result in hyperglycemia. Choice B, Type 1 diabetes mellitus, is unlikely in this case as the symptoms and presentation are more suggestive of acromegaly. Choice C, Hypothyroidism, typically presents with different symptoms such as weight gain, fatigue, and cold intolerance, not consistent with Jemma's symptoms. Choice D, Deficient growth hormone, would not lead to the signs and symptoms observed in Jemma, as her condition is characterized by excessive growth hormone production.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased urine output.' Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and decreased urine output. Therefore, the nurse should expect the client to have decreased urine output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not typically associated with SIADH as it usually leads to dilutional hyponatremia. Hypotension (Choice B) is not a common clinical manifestation of SIADH. Polyuria (Choice D) is the opposite of what is expected in a client with SIADH, who typically presents with decreased urine output.

5. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

• A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
• B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
• C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
• D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

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