HESI RN
Leadership HESI Quizlet
1. A female client with physical findings suggestive of a hyperpituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, necessitating a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the surgery, Nurse Jacob reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions provided to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize?
- A. You must lie flat for 24 hours after surgery.
- B. You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose.
- C. You must restrict your fluid intake.
- D. You must report ringing in your ears immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, it is crucial to avoid activities such as coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose to prevent an increase in intracranial pressure or the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Coughing, sneezing, or nose blowing can strain the surgical site, potentially leading to complications. Lying flat for 24 hours is not typically required after this surgery. Fluid intake should be encouraged to prevent dehydration. Ringing in the ears is not a common complication associated with this type of surgery.
2. Which of the following best defines management?
- A. A manager is someone who ensures that employees complete their work.
- B. A manager controls the work of employees.
- C. A manager organizes and controls a group of employees to get work done.
- D. A manager accomplishes tasks through planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling work groups.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best definition of management encompasses the comprehensive process of planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling work groups to achieve organizational goals. Choice A is too limited, focusing only on ensuring work completion. Choice B is overly restrictive as management involves more than mere control. Choice C is more specific than the correct answer, which encompasses a broader range of managerial functions.
3. The client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about self-care management. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will rotate my injection sites to prevent skin damage.
- B. I can stop taking my medication if my blood sugar is normal.
- C. I should monitor my blood sugar levels regularly.
- D. I should follow a healthy diet and exercise regularly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should not stop taking their medication even if blood sugar levels are normal. This is because ongoing management is necessary to control blood sugar levels and prevent complications. Choice A is correct as rotating injection sites helps prevent skin damage and improves insulin absorption. Choice C is correct as regular monitoring of blood sugar levels is vital for managing diabetes effectively. Choice D is correct as following a healthy diet and exercising regularly are key components of diabetes management.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a client with DM. The nurse understands that the peak time for rapid-acting insulin, such as lispro (Humalog), is:
- A. 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration.
- B. 1 to 2 hours after administration.
- C. 2 to 4 hours after administration.
- D. 3 to 5 hours after administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. Rapid-acting insulins like lispro, such as Humalog, peak quickly within 30 minutes to 1 hour after administration. This peak time is crucial to monitor for potential hypoglycemia, which is most likely to occur during this period. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a longer peak time for rapid-acting insulin, which is inaccurate. Choices C and D are also incorrect because they indicate even longer peak times, which do not align with the rapid onset and peak action of lispro insulin.
5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
- A. Initiate insulin therapy.
- B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
- C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
- D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.
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