the nurse is caring for a client with hyperthyroidism who is receiving propylthiouracil ptu the nurse should monitor for which of the following potent
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HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

1. The client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.

2. Knowing that gluconeogenesis helps to maintain blood glucose levels, a healthcare provider should:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gluconeogenesis is a process where the body synthesizes glucose from non-carbohydrate sources to maintain blood glucose levels. Documenting weight changes due to fatty acid mobilization is important as it can impact the patient's metabolic status. Evaluating the patient's sensitivity to low room temperatures because of decreased adipose tissue insulation is crucial to prevent hypothermia. Protecting the patient from sources of infection due to decreased cellular protein deposits is essential to prevent complications. Therefore, all the options are relevant considerations in managing a patient undergoing gluconeogenesis, making option D the correct answer.

3. A client with hyperaldosteronism is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excessive secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes potassium excretion in the kidneys. This leads to low potassium levels in the blood, known as hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice C). Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite condition, where there is high potassium levels in the blood and is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is a low sodium level, which is not directly related to aldosterone function. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not typically a direct result of hyperaldosteronism.

4. A client with diabetes insipidus is receiving desmopressin therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Desmopressin, a medication used to treat diabetes insipidus, can cause the retention of water without sodium, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. This occurs because desmopressin increases water reabsorption in the kidneys without affecting sodium levels. Hypernatremia (choice B) is unlikely because desmopressin does not cause excessive sodium retention. Hypokalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with desmopressin therapy for diabetes insipidus.

5. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

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