HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5
1. The client has received IV solutions for three (3) days through a 20-gauge IV catheter placed in the left cephalic vein. On morning rounds, the nurse notes the IV site is tender to palpation and a red streak has formed. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Start a new IV in the right hand.
- B. Discontinue the intravenous line.
- C. Complete an incident record.
- D. Place a warm washcloth over the site.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The first action should be to discontinue the intravenous line to prevent further complications such as infection or thrombophlebitis. Starting a new IV in the right hand is not the priority as addressing the current issue is important. Completing an incident record can be done after addressing the immediate concern of the IV site. Placing a warm washcloth over the site does not address the red streak and tenderness, which may indicate an infection that requires discontinuation of the IV line.
2. How often should rotation sites for insulin injection be separated from one another?
- A. Every third day.
- B. Every week.
- C. Every 2-3 weeks.
- D. Every 2-4 weeks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Insulin injection sites should be rotated every 2-3 weeks to prevent lipodystrophy and ensure proper insulin absorption. Option A ('Every third day') is too frequent and does not allow enough time for the previous site to heal properly. Option B ('Every week') might not provide adequate time for the tissue to recover. Option D ('Every 2-4 weeks') could potentially lead to overuse of a single injection site, increasing the risk of lipodystrophy and inconsistent insulin absorption. Therefore, the recommended interval of every 2-3 weeks is optimal for insulin injection site rotation.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperaldosteronism. Which of the following laboratory results would the nurse expect?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excess of aldosterone production, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion by the kidneys. This results in hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice A). Hypernatremia (Choice B) is an incorrect choice as hyperaldosteronism primarily affects potassium and not sodium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is also incorrect because hyperaldosteronism causes potassium excretion, leading to low levels. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism; instead, it is more related to conditions affecting calcium regulation.
4. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?
- A. Serum potassium level
- B. Serum sodium level
- C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
- D. Serum osmolarity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Serum osmolarity is the most important laboratory test for confirming hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia and dehydration without ketoacidosis. Elevated serum osmolarity indicates increased solute concentration in the blood, which is a hallmark of HHNS. Serum potassium level (Choice A) is important in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis rather than HHNS. Serum sodium level (Choice B) may be affected in HHNS but is not the primary test for confirming the disorder. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values (Choice C) are more useful in assessing acid-base status, which is not the primary concern in HHNS.
5. Acarbose (Precose), an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, is prescribed for a female client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. During discharge planning, nurse Pauleen would be aware of the client's need for additional teaching when the client states:
- A. If I have hypoglycemia, I should eat some sugar, not dextrose.
- B. The drug makes my pancreas release more insulin.
- C. I should never take insulin while I'm taking this drug.
- D. It's best if I take the drug with the first bite of a meal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Acarbose (Precose) is an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that works by slowing carbohydrate absorption in the intestine, not by stimulating insulin release. Therefore, the client would need additional teaching if they state that the drug makes their pancreas release more insulin (Choice B). Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because during hypoglycemia, it is recommended to consume glucose or dextrose to rapidly raise blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect because insulin therapy may still be needed in some cases, even when taking acarbose. Choice D is incorrect because acarbose should be taken at the start of a meal to help reduce postprandial blood glucose levels.
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