HESI RN
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1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being discharged after receiving initial treatment. What should the nurse emphasize as a crucial instruction?
- A. Take insulin as prescribed, even if you are not eating.
- B. Avoid all forms of physical exercise to prevent hypoglycemia.
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly and report any changes.
- D. Stop taking oral antidiabetic medication if your blood glucose levels are normal.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly is a critical aspect of managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. This allows the individual to track their blood sugar levels, understand the effectiveness of the treatment plan, and detect any fluctuations promptly. Option A is incorrect because insulin should be taken based on a prescribed schedule that correlates with meals to prevent hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Option B is incorrect as physical exercise is beneficial for managing diabetes but should be done cautiously with adjustments in insulin or food intake. Option D is incorrect because discontinuing oral antidiabetic medications without healthcare provider guidance can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.
2. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?
- A. Oral anticoagulants
- B. Anabolic steroids
- C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
- D. Thiazide diuretics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.
3. In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?
- A. Adrenal cortex
- B. Pancreas
- C. Adrenal medulla
- D. Parathyroid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by promoting sodium and water retention in the kidneys. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in the 'fight or flight' response, not in regulating blood pressure. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones involved in blood sugar regulation, not blood pressure. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the blood, not blood pressure.
4. The client with hyperparathyroidism is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?
- A. Bananas
- B. Spinach
- C. Milk
- D. Processed meats
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with hyperparathyroidism should avoid high-calcium foods like milk because they already have elevated calcium levels. Bananas and spinach are not high in calcium and can be included in the diet. Processed meats are not specifically contraindicated in hyperparathyroidism, so they are not the correct answer.
5. Which of the following clinical findings would be most concerning in a client with hypothyroidism?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Dry skin
- C. Constipation
- D. Depression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia in a client with hypothyroidism is the most concerning finding as it may indicate severe hypothyroidism, leading to decreased heart rate. Bradycardia can be a sign of myxedema coma, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Dry skin, constipation, and depression are common symptoms associated with hypothyroidism but are not as acutely concerning as bradycardia.
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