a male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent nurse jack explains that these medications are only
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Leadership HESI Quizlet

1. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oral antidiabetic agents are specifically designed for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy as the primary treatment due to the absence of endogenous insulin production. Therefore, these medications are not effective for individuals with type 1 diabetes like the male client in this scenario. Choice A is incorrect as oral antidiabetic agents are not about preference but rather about treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as being pregnant does not impact the effectiveness of oral antidiabetic agents; they are primarily indicated for type 2 diabetes.

2. Which of the following clinical findings would be most concerning in a client with hypothyroidism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia in a client with hypothyroidism is the most concerning finding as it may indicate severe hypothyroidism, leading to decreased heart rate. Bradycardia can be a sign of myxedema coma, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Dry skin, constipation, and depression are common symptoms associated with hypothyroidism but are not as acutely concerning as bradycardia.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of adrenal insufficiency. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of an Addisonian crisis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an Addisonian crisis, there is a lack of adrenal hormones leading to severe hypotension. Hypertension (choice A) is not a typical sign of Addisonian crisis but can occur in conditions like pheochromocytoma. Hyperglycemia (choice B) is not a characteristic sign of an Addisonian crisis. Tachycardia (choice D) may occur as a compensatory mechanism in response to hypotension, but severe bradycardia is more common in an Addisonian crisis.

4. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

5. When assessing a male client with pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamines, Nurse April is most likely to detect:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension. The normal blood pressure range is around 120/80 mm Hg, so a blood pressure reading of 176/88 mm Hg is most likely to be detected in a client with pheochromocytoma. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because pheochromocytoma typically presents with hypertension, not a normal or low blood pressure (choice A), not related to blood glucose levels (choice B), and not bradycardia (choice C).

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