Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

2. Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he's impotent and says he's concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:

• A. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality.
• B. Provide time for privacy.
• C. Provide support for the spouse or significant other.
• D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a postoperative male client with diabetes mellitus who reports impotence and concerns about its impact on his marriage is to suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. Impotence can have significant emotional and relational effects, and a sex counselor is specifically trained to address such concerns. Encouraging the client to ask questions about personal sexuality (Choice A) may not provide the specialized support needed in this situation. Providing time for privacy (Choice B) is important but may not directly address the client's concerns about impotence. Providing support for the spouse or significant other (Choice C) is valuable but may not be as effective as seeking professional help to address the client's specific issue of impotence.

3. In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

• A. Adrenal cortex
• B. Pancreas
• C. Adrenal medulla
• D. Parathyroid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by promoting sodium and water retention in the kidneys. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in the 'fight or flight' response, not in regulating blood pressure. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones involved in blood sugar regulation, not blood pressure. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the blood, not blood pressure.

4. A client with hypothyroidism is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Thyroid storm
• B. Myxedema coma
• C. Cushing's syndrome
• D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myxedema coma is a severe, life-threatening complication that can occur in individuals with untreated or inadequately treated hypothyroidism. It is characterized by extreme hypothyroidism leading to decreased mental status, hypothermia, bradycardia, and respiratory depression. Thyroid storm (Choice A) is a severe complication of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Cushing's syndrome (Choice C) results from prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, not related to hypothyroidism. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) is a complication of uncontrolled diabetes, not directly associated with hypothyroidism.

5. A client with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that the purpose of this medication is to:

• A. Treat the underlying cause of the disease
• B. Reduce thyroid hormone production
• C. Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors
• D. Increase energy levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps manage symptoms like tachycardia (fast heart rate) and tremors in patients with Graves' disease. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not address the underlying cause of Graves' disease, which is autoimmune in nature. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not directly reduce thyroid hormone production; it mainly targets the symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while propranolol may help with symptoms like tachycardia, it is not intended to increase energy levels.

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