HESI RN
Leadership and Management HESI
1. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
- B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.
2. What clinical feature distinguishes a hypoglycemic reaction from a ketoacidosis reaction?
- A. Blurred vision.
- B. Diaphoresis.
- C. Nausea.
- D. Weakness.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diaphoresis is the correct answer because it is more characteristic of hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia typically presents with symptoms such as diaphoresis (excessive sweating), palpitations, tremors, and anxiety. On the other hand, ketoacidosis is associated with symptoms such as fruity breath, deep and labored breathing (Kussmaul respirations), nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Blurred vision can occur in both hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis due to metabolic disturbances affecting the eyes. Weakness is a nonspecific symptom that can be present in both conditions, making it less helpful in distinguishing between the two.
3. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used to:
- A. Increase metabolism
- B. Reduce anxiety
- C. Decrease heart rate
- D. Increase blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used in the management of hyperthyroidism. It works by blocking the effects of adrenaline, resulting in a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not increase metabolism; instead, it may have a mild inhibitory effect. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol is not primarily used to reduce anxiety, although it may have some anxiolytic effects. Choice D is incorrect as propranolol actually decreases blood pressure by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels.
4. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
- C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.
5. Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he's impotent and says he's concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:
- A. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality.
- B. Provide time for privacy.
- C. Provide support for the spouse or significant other.
- D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a postoperative male client with diabetes mellitus who reports impotence and concerns about its impact on his marriage is to suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. Impotence can have significant emotional and relational effects, and a sex counselor is specifically trained to address such concerns. Encouraging the client to ask questions about personal sexuality (Choice A) may not provide the specialized support needed in this situation. Providing time for privacy (Choice B) is important but may not directly address the client's concerns about impotence. Providing support for the spouse or significant other (Choice C) is valuable but may not be as effective as seeking professional help to address the client's specific issue of impotence.
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