Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

2. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:

• A. Serum glucose level.
• B. Hair loss.
• C. Bone mineralization.
• D. Menstrual flow.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production which can lead to hyperglycemia. Successful treatment of Cushing's syndrome aims to normalize cortisol levels, resulting in a decline in serum glucose levels. Choice B, hair loss, is not specifically associated with Cushing's syndrome or its treatment. Choice C, bone mineralization, is often compromised in Cushing's syndrome due to the effects of excess cortisol on bones; however, successful treatment would aim to improve bone health rather than decline it. Choice D, menstrual flow, is not directly linked to Cushing's syndrome or its treatment, so a decline in menstrual flow would not be an expected outcome of successful treatment.

3. Early this morning, a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, Nurse Tina assesses the client, who now has nausea, a temperature of 105°F (40.5°C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?

• A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
• B. Thyroid crisis
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tetany

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thyroid crisis. Thyroid crisis, also known as thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition that can occur after a thyroidectomy. Symptoms include high fever, tachycardia, extreme restlessness, and other signs of severe hyperthyroidism. Diabetic ketoacidosis (choice A) is a complication of diabetes characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis, not typically seen post-thyroidectomy. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is low blood sugar levels and would not present with the symptoms described. Tetany (choice D) is a condition of involuntary muscle spasms due to low calcium levels and is not directly related to the symptoms observed in this scenario.

4. Clinical nursing assessment for a patient with microangiopathy who has manifested impaired peripheral arterial circulation includes all of the following except:

• A. Integumentary inspection for the presence of brown spots on the lower extremities.
• B. Observation for paleness of the lower extremities.
• C. Observation for blanching of the feet after the legs are elevated for 60 seconds.
• D. Palpation for increased pulse volume in the arteries of the lower extremities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with impaired peripheral arterial circulation, clinical nursing assessment should include integumentary inspection for the presence of brown spots, observation for paleness of the lower extremities, and observation for blanching of the feet after the legs are elevated for 60 seconds. Palpation for increased pulse volume in the arteries of the lower extremities is not consistent with impaired circulation, as pulses are typically diminished in this condition. Therefore, palpation for increased pulse volume is not relevant to the assessment of impaired peripheral arterial circulation.

5. A client with DM is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should plan to:

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period.
• B. Give the client a regular diet as ordered.
• C. Have the client stop taking insulin 48 hours before surgery.
• D. Hold the client's insulin on the morning of surgery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level closely during the perioperative period. For a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) scheduled for surgery, it is essential to closely monitor blood glucose levels to prevent hypo- or hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because giving the client a regular diet as ordered may not address the specific needs related to managing blood glucose levels in the perioperative period. Choice C is incorrect as abruptly stopping insulin 48 hours before surgery can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels, which is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because holding the client's insulin on the morning of surgery can also disrupt blood sugar control, potentially leading to complications during the perioperative period.

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