Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which of the following is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer glucagon
• B. Check the client's blood glucose level
• C. Give the client a snack
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's blood glucose level. This is the priority action to confirm hypoglycemia before implementing further interventions. Administering glucagon (Choice A) may be necessary in severe cases of hypoglycemia, but confirming the low blood glucose level is crucial before administering any treatment. Giving the client a snack (Choice C) can help raise blood sugar levels but should come after confirming the hypoglycemia. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, but the immediate priority is to assess and address the hypoglycemia.

3. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?

• A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
• B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
• C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
• D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.

4. A client with DM is being taught about the importance of monitoring blood glucose levels. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor blood glucose:

• A. Before meals and at bedtime.
• B. Only after meals.
• C. Only in the morning.
• D. Only when feeling unwell.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels before meals and at bedtime. This timing allows for a comprehensive understanding of how the body responds to food intake and to assess fasting glucose levels. Monitoring blood glucose only after meals (Choice B) may miss important pre-meal fluctuations. Checking glucose levels only in the morning (Choice C) overlooks the impact of meals throughout the day. Monitoring blood glucose only when feeling unwell (Choice D) is reactive and does not provide consistent data for managing diabetes effectively. Therefore, monitoring blood glucose before meals and at bedtime helps in maintaining good glucose control and preventing complications.

5. During the physical examination, Nurse Noah expects to assess which sign in a female client with a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl?

• A. Trousseau's sign
• B. Homans' sign
• C. Hegar's sign
• D. Goodell's sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Trousseau's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated above systolic pressure and maintained for a few minutes. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular irritability associated with low serum calcium levels. Homans' sign is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis and involves calf pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot. Hegar's sign is a softening of the lower uterine segment seen in pregnancy, while Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix also seen in pregnancy. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct assessment related to hypocalcemia would be Trousseau's sign.

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