a male client has recently undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor dr wong prescribes corticotropin acthar 20 units im qid as a replacement th
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

1. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

2. During preoperative teaching for a female client undergoing subtotal thyroidectomy, which statement should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Instructing the client to avoid hyperextending the neck after thyroid surgery is crucial to prevent stress on the surgical site and reduce the risk of complications such as strain on the incision or damage to the healing tissues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Keeping the head of the bed flat for 24 hours is not necessary after a thyroidectomy; elevation of the head of the bed can actually help reduce swelling and improve comfort. B) Encouraging deep breathing and coughing after surgery is essential to prevent respiratory complications such as pneumonia, so this advice is incorrect. C) Difficulty swallowing after thyroid surgery is not a typical outcome, so this statement is inaccurate and should not be included in the preoperative teaching.

3. Clinical manifestations associated with a diagnosis of type 1 DM include all of the following except:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clinical manifestations of type 1 diabetes mellitus include hypoglycemia, ketonuria, and polyphagia. Hyponatremia is not typically associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus; it is more commonly linked with other conditions such as syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) or heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Hyponatremia.

4. The client has been vomiting and has had numerous episodes of diarrhea. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During episodes of vomiting and diarrhea, there is a risk of significant potassium loss, leading to potential electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial in this situation to assess and manage any abnormalities promptly. Serum calcium (Choice A) is not typically affected by vomiting and diarrhea. Serum phosphorus (Choice B) levels are not commonly altered by these symptoms. Serum sodium (Choice D) may be affected in severe cases of dehydration, but potassium monitoring is a higher priority due to its potential for rapid depletion in vomiting and diarrhea.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being discharged after receiving initial treatment. What should the nurse emphasize as a crucial instruction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly is a critical aspect of managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. This allows the individual to track their blood sugar levels, understand the effectiveness of the treatment plan, and detect any fluctuations promptly. Option A is incorrect because insulin should be taken based on a prescribed schedule that correlates with meals to prevent hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Option B is incorrect as physical exercise is beneficial for managing diabetes but should be done cautiously with adjustments in insulin or food intake. Option D is incorrect because discontinuing oral antidiabetic medications without healthcare provider guidance can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.

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