a male client has recently undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor dr wong prescribes corticotropin acthar 20 units im qid as a replacement th
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HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

1. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

2. The client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about self-care management. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should not stop taking their medication even if blood sugar levels are normal. This is because ongoing management is necessary to control blood sugar levels and prevent complications. Choice A is correct as rotating injection sites helps prevent skin damage and improves insulin absorption. Choice C is correct as regular monitoring of blood sugar levels is vital for managing diabetes effectively. Choice D is correct as following a healthy diet and exercising regularly are key components of diabetes management.

3. Nurse Perry is caring for a female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who exhibits confusion, light-headedness, and aberrant behavior. The client is still conscious. The nurse should first administer:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the initial treatment should involve administering 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as orange juice. This helps rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels. Choices A and D are incorrect as administering glucagon or fast-acting insulin is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia in a conscious client. Choice B, an I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%, is a more invasive and aggressive intervention that is not typically indicated for a conscious client with hypoglycemia.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with this condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In hyperparathyroidism, there is an overproduction of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood (hypercalcemia). This occurs as the parathyroid hormone stimulates the release of calcium from the bones and enhances calcium absorption in the intestines and kidneys. Therefore, the correct answer is hypercalcemia (Choice B). Hypocalcemia (Choice A) is not consistent with hyperparathyroidism, as this condition is characterized by high calcium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice C) and hyperphosphatemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with hyperparathyroidism and are not primary manifestations of this condition.

5. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for excess fluid volume?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with renal failure are unable to excrete fluids effectively, leading to an increased risk of fluid volume excess. Option A, the client taking diuretics, would be at risk for fluid volume deficit due to increased urine output caused by the diuretics. Option C, the client with an ileostomy, is at risk for fluid volume deficit due to increased output from the ileostomy. Option D, the client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning, may be at risk for dehydration, but not specifically excess fluid volume.

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