Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicates an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?

• A. The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon.
• B. The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat.
• C. The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast.
• D. The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in the afternoon may coincide with the peak action of NPH insulin, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia. The peak action of NPH insulin typically occurs 4-12 hours after administration, so exercising during this time can further lower blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are better options as they suggest exercising at times that are less likely to overlap with the peak insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia.

2. The nurse and an unlicensed nursing assistant are caring for a group of clients. Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform?

• A. Measure the client's output from the indwelling catheter.
• B. Record the client's intake and output on the I & O sheet.
• C. Instruct the client on appropriate fluid restrictions.
• D. Provide water for a client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Instructing the client on appropriate fluid restrictions is a nursing intervention that requires professional judgment and should be performed by the nurse. In this scenario, the nurse should provide education regarding fluid restrictions based on the client's individual needs. Measuring the client's output from the indwelling catheter (choice A) and recording intake and output (choice B) can be tasks delegated to the unlicensed nursing assistant. Providing water for a client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus (choice D) is not appropriate as these clients often require careful fluid management to prevent complications.

3. A nurse manager is reviewing the nurse’s documentation on the unit. Which of the following best describes the importance of this review?

• A. The nurse manager’s review of documentation is crucial to ensure that it meets legal and ethical standards and accurately reflects the care provided to patients.
• B. The nurse manager’s review of documentation is important to ensure that it is thorough, accurate, and reflects the nurse’s accountability for patient care.
• C. The nurse manager’s review of documentation is necessary to ensure that it is consistent with the unit’s policies and procedures and that it accurately reflects the care provided.
• D. The nurse manager’s review of documentation is essential to ensure that it meets regulatory requirements and that it supports the delivery of safe and effective patient care.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse manager's review of documentation is a critical aspect of maintaining quality patient care. Choice D is the correct answer as it highlights the importance of ensuring that documentation meets regulatory requirements, supporting the delivery of safe and effective patient care. Regulatory requirements are established to ensure that healthcare facilities function within established guidelines and standards, promoting patient safety and quality of care. Choices A, B, and C, although important aspects of documentation review, do not fully encapsulate the significant role of regulatory compliance in ensuring the overall quality and safety of patient care.

4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

5. Albert refuses his bedtime snack. This should alert the healthcare provider to assess for:

• A. Elevated serum bicarbonate and decreased blood pH.
• B. Signs of hypoglycemia earlier than expected.
• C. Symptoms of hyperglycemia due to NPH insulin peak time.
• D. Presence of sugar in the urine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient like Albert refuses his bedtime snack, it can lead to hypoglycemia, especially if they are on medication such as insulin. Hypoglycemia can occur earlier than expected due to the lack of carbohydrate intake before bedtime. This situation warrants the healthcare provider to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because the given scenario is more indicative of hypoglycemia than metabolic alkalosis. Choice C is incorrect as NPH insulin peak time is not directly related to skipping a bedtime snack. Choice D is incorrect as sugar in the urine typically indicates hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.

Similar Questions