HESI RN
HESI Leadership and Management
1. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicates an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?
- A. The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon.
- B. The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat.
- C. The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast.
- D. The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Exercising in the afternoon may coincide with the peak action of NPH insulin, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia. The peak action of NPH insulin typically occurs 4-12 hours after administration, so exercising during this time can further lower blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are better options as they suggest exercising at times that are less likely to overlap with the peak insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia.
2. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager’s actions?
- A. Resource allocation
- B. Monitoring
- C. Job analysis and redesign
- D. Planning for the future
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Planning for the future. In this scenario, the nurse manager is engaging in decisional activities related to planning for the future. This involves analyzing potential impacts of policy changes and community shifts on the unit's functioning and making decisions based on predictions and foresight. Option A, resource allocation, focuses on distributing resources effectively. Option B, monitoring, involves observing and assessing current activities. Option C, job analysis and redesign, pertains to evaluating and restructuring roles and responsibilities within the unit, which is not the primary focus of the scenario provided.
3. A healthcare provider is educating a client with DM on recognizing symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which symptom should the healthcare provider mention?
- A. Increased thirst
- B. Frequent urination
- C. Sweating
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct symptom to mention when educating a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) on hypoglycemia is sweating. Sweating is a common symptom of hypoglycemia as it occurs due to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system in response to low blood sugar levels. Increased thirst (Choice A) and frequent urination (Choice B) are more indicative of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) rather than hypoglycemia. Weight loss (Choice D) is not a typical symptom associated with hypoglycemia.
4. The client with type 2 DM is receiving dietary instructions from the nurse regarding the prescribed diabetic diet. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that:
- A. I need to skip meals if my blood glucose level is elevated.
- B. I need to eat a small meal or snack every 2 to 3 hours.
- C. I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.
- D. I need to eat a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I need to avoid using concentrated sweets in my diet.' Clients with type 2 diabetes should avoid concentrated sweets as they can cause rapid spikes in blood glucose levels, which can be detrimental to their health. Option A is incorrect because skipping meals can lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the specific issue of avoiding concentrated sweets. Option D is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet is not typically recommended as the primary approach for managing type 2 diabetes.
5. The client has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Administer hypertonic saline
- C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
- D. Restrict oral fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. This is because SIADH leads to excessive production of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. By restricting oral fluids, the nurse helps prevent further water retention and imbalance of electrolytes. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering hypertonic saline (Choice B) is not the primary treatment for SIADH, as it may worsen the imbalance. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (Choice C) is not appropriate since SIADH leads to water retention, not dehydration.
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