Nursing Elites

1. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

• A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
• B. Encouraging increased oral intake
• C. Restricting fluids
• D. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a male client with SIADH is to restrict fluids. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Restricting fluids helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia by reducing water intake. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly (choice A) would worsen the condition by adding more fluids, encouraging increased oral intake (choice B) is contraindicated as it adds more fluids, and administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids (choice D) is not a standard treatment for SIADH.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer NPH insulin to a client with DM. The nurse notes that the NPH insulin vial is cloudy. The nurse should:

• A. Obtain a new vial of NPH insulin.
• B. Draw up the cloudy insulin as ordered.
• C. Shake the vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin.
• D. Warm the insulin to room temperature before administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to draw up the cloudy insulin as ordered. NPH insulin is inherently cloudy due to its suspension of insulin crystals. Shaking the vial vigorously can lead to denaturation of the insulin molecules, altering its efficacy. Warming NPH insulin is not necessary as it can cause breakdown of insulin molecules. The nurse should gently roll the vial between hands to mix it before drawing it up to ensure an even distribution of insulin in the suspension.

3. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

• A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
• B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
• C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
• D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

4. Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, Nurse Betty would assess for hyperkalemia indicated by which of the following signs?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Tremors
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a classic manifestation of hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood. After an adrenalectomy, where one adrenal gland is removed, there may be a risk of hyperkalemia due to altered hormone regulation. Tremors (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia but may be seen in conditions like hypocalcemia. Diaphoresis (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hyperkalemia. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating and constipation is a common gastrointestinal issue, neither directly related to potassium imbalances.

5. The client with DM is being instructed by the nurse about the importance of controlling blood glucose levels. The nurse should emphasize that uncontrolled blood glucose can lead to:

• A. Increased risk of heart disease and stroke.
• B. Improved wound healing.
• C. Reduced need for medication.
• D. Decreased risk of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of heart disease and stroke. Uncontrolled blood glucose levels in clients with diabetes mellitus (DM) can lead to cardiovascular complications, such as heart disease and stroke. High blood glucose levels can damage blood vessels over time, increasing the risk of atherosclerosis and cardiovascular events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because uncontrolled blood glucose levels do not improve wound healing, reduce the need for medication, or decrease the risk of infection. In fact, uncontrolled blood glucose levels can impair wound healing, require more medications to manage symptoms, and increase the risk of infections due to compromised immune function.

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