Nursing Elites

1. To be effective, a nurse manager needs both managerial and leadership skills. Interpersonal activities have many concerns that overlap both leaders and managers. However, some interpersonal activities are needed by nurse managers, but are not specific duties of leaders. Which of the following is an interpersonal activity of nurse managers, but not necessarily all nurse leaders?

• A. Coaching
• B. Resource allocation
• C. Planning for the future
• D. Monitoring

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Resource allocation is an interpersonal activity specific to nurse managers because it involves managing the distribution of resources within the healthcare environment, which is not necessarily a duty for all leaders. While coaching, planning for the future, and monitoring are important skills for both leaders and managers, resource allocation is a task that is more specific to the managerial role of nurse managers.

2. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which 'related-to' phrase should the nurse add?

• A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures
• B. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate
• C. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces
• D. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures.' In chronic hyperparathyroidism, bone demineralization occurs due to the excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium resorption from bones. This process weakens the bones, making the client prone to pathologic fractures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the increased risk of injury associated with chronic hyperparathyroidism. Exhaustion, edema, dry skin, and tetany are not the primary risks for injury in this client population.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased urine output.' Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and decreased urine output. Therefore, the nurse should expect the client to have decreased urine output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not typically associated with SIADH as it usually leads to dilutional hyponatremia. Hypotension (Choice B) is not a common clinical manifestation of SIADH. Polyuria (Choice D) is the opposite of what is expected in a client with SIADH, who typically presents with decreased urine output.

4. A client with DM is taking regular and NPH insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instruction to the client?

• A. Take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin.
• B. Take the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
• C. Mix the insulins in a separate syringe.
• D. Take the regular insulin first and immediately follow it with the NPH insulin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin. Regular insulin should be administered before NPH insulin to prevent contamination and maintain the potency of each insulin type. Choice B is incorrect because NPH insulin should not be taken before regular insulin. Mixing the insulins in a separate syringe, as suggested in choice C, is not recommended as it may alter the effectiveness of the insulins. Choice D is also incorrect as taking the regular insulin first and immediately following it with NPH insulin is not the recommended administration sequence.

5. The patient expects that a type 1 diabetic may receive ____ of their morning dose of insulin preoperatively:

• A. 10-20%.
• B. 25-40%.
• C. 50-60%.
• D. 85-90%.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is common practice to administer 25-40% of the morning dose of insulin preoperatively to prevent hypoglycemia during surgery. Giving a lower percentage (A) may not provide sufficient glycemic control, while higher percentages (C, D) can increase the risk of hypoglycemia during the surgical procedure.

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