Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse manager in managing conflict on the unit?

• A. The nurse manager is responsible for identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner.
• B. The nurse manager is responsible for mediating conflicts between staff members and ensuring that they are resolved in a fair and equitable manner.
• C. The nurse manager is responsible for facilitating communication between staff members and ensuring that conflicts are addressed in a timely manner.
• D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing training and support to staff members to help them develop the skills needed to manage conflict effectively.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager's role in managing conflict involves identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner. This includes addressing conflicts at their root cause and guiding staff towards effective resolution. Choice B is incorrect as the nurse manager typically does not act as a mediator but rather empowers staff to resolve conflicts themselves. Choice C is incorrect as while facilitating communication is important, it is not the sole responsibility of the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as providing training and support for conflict management is part of the role, but the primary responsibility lies in addressing the sources of conflict directly.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected diabetes insipidus. Which of the following clinical manifestations would support this diagnosis?

• A. Polyuria and polydipsia
• B. Hypertension and bradycardia
• C. Weight gain and edema
• D. Oliguria and thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst) are classic clinical manifestations of diabetes insipidus. In this condition, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine effectively, resulting in increased urine output (polyuria) and consequent thirst (polydipsia). Hypertension and bradycardia (Choice B) are not typical findings in diabetes insipidus. Weight gain and edema (Choice C) are more indicative of conditions such as heart failure or nephrotic syndrome. Oliguria (decreased urine output) and thirst (Choice D) are contradictory symptoms to what is seen in diabetes insipidus.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention in the treatment of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. This is essential for fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering intravenous insulin can lead to further potassium depletion without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but should follow fluid resuscitation to avoid life-threatening hypokalemia. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is necessary to assess the acid-base status but is not the initial priority when managing DKA.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperaldosteronism. Which of the following laboratory results would the nurse expect?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excess of aldosterone production, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion by the kidneys. This results in hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice A). Hypernatremia (Choice B) is an incorrect choice as hyperaldosteronism primarily affects potassium and not sodium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is also incorrect because hyperaldosteronism causes potassium excretion, leading to low levels. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism; instead, it is more related to conditions affecting calcium regulation.

5. The client with hyperparathyroidism is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?

• A. Bananas
• B. Spinach
• C. Milk
• D. Processed meats

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with hyperparathyroidism should avoid high-calcium foods like milk because they already have elevated calcium levels. Bananas and spinach are not high in calcium and can be included in the diet. Processed meats are not specifically contraindicated in hyperparathyroidism, so they are not the correct answer.

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