Nursing Elites

1. What is the approximate duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH?

• A. 6-8 hours.
• B. 10-14 hours.
• C. 16-20 hours.
• D. 24-28 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '16-20 hours.' Intermediate-acting insulins like NPH typically have a duration of action of approximately 16-20 hours. This prolonged action makes them effective in managing blood glucose levels over an extended period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins. Choice A (6-8 hours) is too short, choice B (10-14 hours) is also shorter than the typical duration, and choice D (24-28 hours) is too long for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH.

2. A client with hypoparathyroidism is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by decreased levels of parathyroid hormone, leading to reduced calcium levels in the blood, which results in hypocalcemia. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypoparathyroidism does not typically lead to hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypernatremia. Hypercalcemia is more commonly associated with hyperparathyroidism, where there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone.

3. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse manager in managing conflict on the unit?

• A. The nurse manager is responsible for identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner.
• B. The nurse manager is responsible for mediating conflicts between staff members and ensuring that they are resolved in a fair and equitable manner.
• C. The nurse manager is responsible for facilitating communication between staff members and ensuring that conflicts are addressed in a timely manner.
• D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing training and support to staff members to help them develop the skills needed to manage conflict effectively.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager's role in managing conflict involves identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner. This includes addressing conflicts at their root cause and guiding staff towards effective resolution. Choice B is incorrect as the nurse manager typically does not act as a mediator but rather empowers staff to resolve conflicts themselves. Choice C is incorrect as while facilitating communication is important, it is not the sole responsibility of the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as providing training and support for conflict management is part of the role, but the primary responsibility lies in addressing the sources of conflict directly.

4. Nurse managers need several qualities to be effective. A nurse manager is working hard to fully understand how patient outcomes are measured on the unit and how budget changes could impact patient outcomes. Which of the following qualities does this best describe?

• A. Leadership
• B. Business sense
• C. Clinical expertise
• D. Financial management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Business sense.' Nurse managers need to understand how financial decisions impact patient outcomes, which requires a strong understanding of business principles. Leadership (choice A) is important but doesn't specifically address understanding financial and outcome-based impacts. Clinical expertise (choice C) is essential for patient care but doesn't directly relate to understanding budget changes and their impact. Financial management (choice D) is more about managing finances directly rather than understanding the broader implications of budget changes on patient outcomes.

5. A healthcare professional caring for a client who has been receiving intravenous diuretics suspects that the client is experiencing a deficient fluid volume. Which assessment finding would the healthcare professional note in a client with this condition?

• A. Lung congestion
• B. Decreased hematocrit
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Decreased central venous pressure (CVP)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decreased central venous pressure (CVP) is the correct assessment finding in a client with deficient fluid volume. This is because a decrease in CVP indicates reduced blood volume returning to the heart, which is consistent with hypovolemia. Lung congestion (Choice A) would be more indicative of fluid volume excess, not deficiency. Decreased hematocrit (Choice B) may be seen in conditions such as anemia but is not specific to deficient fluid volume. Increased blood pressure (Choice C) is not typically associated with deficient fluid volume; in fact, hypovolemia often leads to decreased blood pressure.

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