Nursing Elites

1. What is the approximate duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH?

• A. 6-8 hours.
• B. 10-14 hours.
• C. 16-20 hours.
• D. 24-28 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '16-20 hours.' Intermediate-acting insulins like NPH typically have a duration of action of approximately 16-20 hours. This prolonged action makes them effective in managing blood glucose levels over an extended period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins. Choice A (6-8 hours) is too short, choice B (10-14 hours) is also shorter than the typical duration, and choice D (24-28 hours) is too long for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer NPH insulin to a client with DM. The nurse notes that the NPH insulin vial is cloudy. The nurse should:

• A. Obtain a new vial of NPH insulin.
• B. Draw up the cloudy insulin as ordered.
• C. Shake the vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin.
• D. Warm the insulin to room temperature before administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to draw up the cloudy insulin as ordered. NPH insulin is inherently cloudy due to its suspension of insulin crystals. Shaking the vial vigorously can lead to denaturation of the insulin molecules, altering its efficacy. Warming NPH insulin is not necessary as it can cause breakdown of insulin molecules. The nurse should gently roll the vial between hands to mix it before drawing it up to ensure an even distribution of insulin in the suspension.

3. The nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed hyperthyroidism about the management of the condition. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should take my medication every day as prescribed.
• B. I need to avoid foods high in iodine.
• C. I can skip my medication on days when I feel fine.
• D. I should monitor my pulse regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with hyperthyroidism should take their medication consistently and not skip doses, even if they feel well.

4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

5. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed radioactive iodine therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with hyperthyroidism undergoes radioactive iodine therapy, the treatment aims to reduce thyroid hormone production by destroying thyroid tissue. As a result, there is a high likelihood of developing hypothyroidism as a side effect. Monitoring for hypothyroidism is crucial post-treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the therapeutic goal is to address hyperthyroidism by inducing hypothyroidism through the treatment.

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