Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Joey is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he's impotent and says he's concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client's care, the most appropriate intervention would be to:

• A. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality.
• B. Provide time for privacy.
• C. Provide support for the spouse or significant other.
• D. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a postoperative male client with diabetes mellitus who reports impotence and concerns about its impact on his marriage is to suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. Impotence can have significant emotional and relational effects, and a sex counselor is specifically trained to address such concerns. Encouraging the client to ask questions about personal sexuality (Choice A) may not provide the specialized support needed in this situation. Providing time for privacy (Choice B) is important but may not directly address the client's concerns about impotence. Providing support for the spouse or significant other (Choice C) is valuable but may not be as effective as seeking professional help to address the client's specific issue of impotence.

2. A client with hyperaldosteronism is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excessive secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes potassium excretion in the kidneys. This leads to low potassium levels in the blood, known as hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice C). Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite condition, where there is high potassium levels in the blood and is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is a low sodium level, which is not directly related to aldosterone function. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not typically a direct result of hyperaldosteronism.

3. The client is NPO and is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a subclavian line. Which precautions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Place the solution on an IV pump at the prescribed rate.
• B. Monitor blood glucose every twelve (12) hours.
• C. Weigh the client weekly, first thing in the morning.
• D. Change the IV tubing every three (3) days.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Precautions for clients receiving TPN include placing the solution on an IV pump to control the rate, monitoring blood glucose levels to detect hyperglycemia, and monitoring intake and output to assess fluid balance. Changing the IV tubing every three days is not a standard precaution for clients receiving TPN via a subclavian line.

4. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. The nurse explains that this medication is used to:

• A. Increase thyroid hormone production
• B. Decrease thyroid hormone production
• C. Relieve symptoms such as tachycardia and anxiety
• D. Prevent weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker that works by blocking the effects of adrenaline, which helps to reduce symptoms such as tachycardia (fast heart rate) and anxiety in individuals with hyperthyroidism. Choices A and B are incorrect because propranolol does not affect thyroid hormone production; it only addresses symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because propranolol does not prevent weight loss associated with hyperthyroidism.

5. A good relationship between a leader and a follower enables the follower to 'manage up.' Which of the following describes the best way for a follower to 'manage up'?

• A. Provide feedback to the unit manager when the manager asks for it.
• B. Assist your manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses.
• C. When a follower works with a manager with poor leadership skills, it is best to transfer to a different unit.
• D. Show respect and appreciation for the manager, even when speaking with coworkers.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Managing up involves building a positive relationship with one's manager by showing respect and appreciation. Choice A is not the best way to manage up as it only focuses on providing feedback when asked, rather than proactively showing respect. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests assisting the manager in capitalizing on their strengths and weaknesses, which is more about helping the manager rather than managing up. Choice C is not the best option as transferring to a different unit should not be the first step in managing up, as it does not address the relationship with the current manager. Therefore, the best way for a follower to manage up is by showing respect and appreciation for the manager, even in conversations with coworkers.

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