Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager’s actions?

• A. Resource allocation
• B. Monitoring
• C. Job analysis and redesign
• D. Planning for the future

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Planning for the future. In this scenario, the nurse manager is engaging in decisional activities related to planning for the future. This involves analyzing potential impacts of policy changes and community shifts on the unit's functioning and making decisions based on predictions and foresight. Option A, resource allocation, focuses on distributing resources effectively. Option B, monitoring, involves observing and assessing current activities. Option C, job analysis and redesign, pertains to evaluating and restructuring roles and responsibilities within the unit, which is not the primary focus of the scenario provided.

2. When assessing a male client with pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamines, Nurse April is most likely to detect:

• A. A blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg
• B. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl
• C. Bradycardia
• D. A blood pressure of 176/88 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension. The normal blood pressure range is around 120/80 mm Hg, so a blood pressure reading of 176/88 mm Hg is most likely to be detected in a client with pheochromocytoma. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because pheochromocytoma typically presents with hypertension, not a normal or low blood pressure (choice A), not related to blood glucose levels (choice B), and not bradycardia (choice C).

3. A client with DM is being taught about the importance of monitoring blood glucose levels. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor blood glucose:

• A. Before meals and at bedtime.
• B. Only after meals.
• C. Only in the morning.
• D. Only when feeling unwell.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose levels before meals and at bedtime. This timing allows for a comprehensive understanding of how the body responds to food intake and to assess fasting glucose levels. Monitoring blood glucose only after meals (Choice B) may miss important pre-meal fluctuations. Checking glucose levels only in the morning (Choice C) overlooks the impact of meals throughout the day. Monitoring blood glucose only when feeling unwell (Choice D) is reactive and does not provide consistent data for managing diabetes effectively. Therefore, monitoring blood glucose before meals and at bedtime helps in maintaining good glucose control and preventing complications.

4. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On reviewing the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for deficient fluid volume?

• A. A client with a colostomy
• B. A client with congestive heart failure
• C. A client with decreased kidney function
• D. A client receiving frequent wound irrigations

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a colostomy are at risk for deficient fluid volume due to the loss of fluid through the colostomy. In colostomy, there can be increased fluid loss through the stoma, which may lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Choices B, C, and D do not directly relate to the risk for deficient fluid volume. Clients with congestive heart failure are more prone to fluid overload rather than deficient volume. Clients with decreased kidney function are at risk for fluid retention, not deficient volume. Clients receiving frequent wound irrigations may be at risk for infection, but this does not directly indicate deficient fluid volume.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased urine output.' Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and decreased urine output. Therefore, the nurse should expect the client to have decreased urine output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not typically associated with SIADH as it usually leads to dilutional hyponatremia. Hypotension (Choice B) is not a common clinical manifestation of SIADH. Polyuria (Choice D) is the opposite of what is expected in a client with SIADH, who typically presents with decreased urine output.

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