Nursing Elites

1. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

2. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with DM for signs of complications. Which sign or symptom, if exhibited in the client, indicates that the client is at risk for chronic complications of diabetes if blood glucose levels are not adequately managed?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Diaphoresis
• C. Pedal edema
• D. Proteinuria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proteinuria is the correct answer because it indicates kidney damage, which is a common complication of uncontrolled diabetes. Elevated blood glucose levels over time can damage the kidneys, leading to proteinuria. Polyuria (excessive urination) is a symptom of diabetes but does not specifically indicate a risk for chronic complications. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and pedal edema (swelling of the lower limbs) are not direct indicators of chronic complications related to uncontrolled diabetes.

3. The client with hypothyroidism is being educated by the healthcare provider about taking levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with meals
• B. Take the medication at bedtime
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach in the morning
• D. Take the medication with a glass of milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach in the morning. This instruction is essential to enhance absorption and efficacy of the medication. Taking levothyroxine with meals, at bedtime, or with a glass of milk can interfere with its absorption and effectiveness, leading to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

4. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used to:

• A. Increase metabolism
• B. Reduce anxiety
• C. Decrease heart rate
• D. Increase blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used in the management of hyperthyroidism. It works by blocking the effects of adrenaline, resulting in a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not increase metabolism; instead, it may have a mild inhibitory effect. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol is not primarily used to reduce anxiety, although it may have some anxiolytic effects. Choice D is incorrect as propranolol actually decreases blood pressure by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels.

5. For the first 72 hours after thyroidectomy surgery, nurse Jamie would assess the female client for Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign because they indicate which of the following?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs are clinical manifestations that suggest hypocalcemia, a common complication following thyroidectomy. Chvostek's sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve, resulting in facial muscle contraction, while Trousseau's sign is provoked by inflating a blood pressure cuff, leading to carpal spasm. Both signs are indicative of low calcium levels in the blood. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correlate with the signs specifically associated with hypocalcemia.

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