which of the following statements is true about syphilis

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
B. There is no known cure for the disease.
C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

2. The client is going for surgery and mentions their religious objection to blood transfusions. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?

A. "I can ask pastoral care to send someone to speak with you about this concern since it would not be safe to refuse a blood transfusion."?
B. "I understand, and you have the right to refuse blood transfusions."?
C. "While I understand, if there is excessive bleeding during surgery, we may need to transfuse blood to stabilize you."?
D. "I have received a blood transfusion before, and I do not think you understand the risks versus the benefits of refusing this."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response is, '"I understand, and you have the right to refuse blood transfusions."? This answer shows respect for the client's autonomy and religious beliefs. It is crucial for healthcare providers to acknowledge and support a patient's decision-making regarding their care, even if it conflicts with medical advice. Option A is not ideal as it might seem dismissive of the client's beliefs. Option C introduces a potential negative outcome of refusing a blood transfusion, which could induce fear or coercion. Option D is inappropriate because it implies judgment and does not uphold the client's autonomy.

3. The mother of a child who weighs 45 lb asks a nurse about car safety seats. The nurse tells the mother to place the child in which car safety seat?

A. Car safety seat in the back seat in a face-forward position
B. Booster seat with one of the car's seat belts placed over the child
C. Booster seat in a rear-facing position in the front seat
D. Car safety seat in a face-forward position in the front seat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the child in a booster seat with one of the car's seat belts placed over the child. A child needs to remain in a car safety seat until he or she weighs 40 lb. Once the child has outgrown the car safety seat, a booster seat is used. Booster seats are designed to raise the child high enough so that the restraining straps are correctly positioned over the child's chest and pelvis, providing optimal safety. Placing a child in a booster seat in a rear-facing position in the front seat is incorrect as children should not be seated in the front seat due to potential airbag-related injuries. Additionally, car safety seats are used for children weighing less than 40 lb and are placed in the middle of the back seat in a rear-facing position for maximum protection.

4. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

5. When a client needs oxygen therapy, what is the highest flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula?

A. 2 liters/minute
B. 4 liters/minute
C. 6 liters/minute
D. 8 liters/minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 6 liters/minute. When a client requires oxygen therapy, the maximum flow rate that oxygen can be delivered via nasal cannula is 6 liters/minute. Nasal cannula can effectively deliver oxygen up to 6 liters/minute. Flow rates exceeding 6 liters/minute may lead to drying of the nasal passages and discomfort for the client. Higher flow rates, like 8 liters/minute, should be administered using a mask to ensure sufficient oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they indicate flow rates that surpass the recommended maximum for nasal cannula delivery.