HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?
- A. Progesterone/estrogen
- B. LH/FSH
- C. FSH/LH
- D. Glucagon/insulin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.
2. Treatment for condylomata acuminata includes the following EXCEPT:
- A. Vulvectomy
- B. Podophyllin application
- C. Laser therapy
- D. Electrocautery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Vulvectomy is not a standard treatment for condylomata acuminata, which are genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). Surgical removal of the vulva (vulvectomy) is an extreme measure and not typically indicated for treating this condition. Choices B, C, and D are valid treatments for condylomata acuminata. Podophyllin application, laser therapy, and electrocautery are commonly used to remove or destroy genital warts caused by HPV. These treatments aim to eliminate the visible warts and clear the infection.
3. Inevitable abortion occurs when:
- A. The ovum dies in utero and the decidua capsularis remains intact.
- B. The cervix is open, and the products of conception are about to be expelled.
- C. The products of conception are expelled before the 20th week of gestation.
- D. The fetus dies and is expelled in the first trimester.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Inevitable abortion occurs when the cervix is open, and the products of conception are about to be expelled. This is a critical point in the process of spontaneous abortion, indicating that expulsion of the products of conception is imminent. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a missed abortion where the ovum dies but the decidua capsularis remains intact. Choice C is incorrect as it describes an incomplete abortion where the products of conception are expelled before the completion of 20 weeks of gestation. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a missed abortion where the fetus dies and is expelled in the first trimester.
4. Which policy was formally launched to target reducing population growth, making family planning services available, accessible, and affordable to all eligible users?
- A. The reproductive health policy
- B. The ministry of health policy
- C. Gender and health policy
- D. The national population policy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the national population policy. This policy was specifically launched to address population growth by providing access to family planning services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly focus on population control and family planning services, which are the primary objectives of the national population policy.
5. Where does the ovum receive the sperm?
- A. Animal pole
- B. Vegetal pole
- C. Zona pellucida
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Zona pellucida.' The ovum receives the sperm at the zona pellucida, which is the glycoprotein layer surrounding the plasma membrane of the oocyte. This layer plays a crucial role in preventing polyspermy. Choices A and B, 'Animal pole' and 'Vegetal pole,' are incorrect as they refer to different regions of the egg and are not where the sperm fertilizes the ovum. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the sperm indeed interacts with the zona pellucida during fertilization.
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