Nursing Elites

1. What is a cord inserted to the very edge of the placenta known as?

• A. Battledore insertion
• B. Placenta velamentosa
• C. Placenta accreta
• D. Vasa Praevia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cord inserted to the very edge of the placenta is known as battledore insertion. This occurs when the cord is attached to the fetal membranes at the placental margin rather than directly to the placental tissue. Placenta velamentosa refers to the condition where the umbilical cord inserts into the fetal membranes before it reaches the placenta. Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. Vasa Praevia is a condition where fetal blood vessels run across or near the internal cervical opening.

2. Which structure maintains the uterus in an anteverted and anteflexed position?

• A. Round ligaments
• B. Broad ligaments
• C. Cardinal ligaments
• D. Pubocervical ligaments

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the Round ligaments. The round ligaments are responsible for maintaining the uterus in an anteverted and anteflexed position. These ligaments attach from the sides of the uterus and extend through the inguinal canal to the labia majora. The other choices, Broad ligaments, Cardinal ligaments, and Pubocervical ligaments, have different functions and attachments within the pelvis. Broad ligaments are a double layer of peritoneum that encloses the uterus and supports the uterine tubes. Cardinal ligaments provide support to the cervix and upper vagina. Pubocervical ligaments support the cervix and bladder.

3. Which of the following is not a role of Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programs?

• A. Awareness about reproductive health
• B. Providing facilities to build a reproductively healthy society
• C. Providing support to reproductively sick people
• D. Promoting abortion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Promoting abortion is not a role of the Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programs. RCH programs focus on promoting awareness about reproductive health, providing facilities to build a reproductively healthy society, and offering support to reproductively sick individuals. The promotion of abortion is not within the scope of RCH programs, which aim to improve maternal and child health outcomes through education, healthcare services, and support systems.

4. The patient about to undergo gynecological surgery is put on nil by mouth for ____ before surgery to prevent aspiration.

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 3-5 hours
• C. 4-6 hours
• D. 5-7 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients undergoing gynecological surgery are typically advised to be nil by mouth for 4-6 hours before the procedure to reduce the risk of aspiration. This duration allows the stomach to empty its contents, decreasing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of stomach contents during surgery. Choices A, B, and D have shorter durations and may not provide sufficient time for adequate gastric emptying, increasing the risk of aspiration.

5. What should be included in the differential diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy?

• A. Inevitable abortion
• B. Dysmenorrhea
• C. Twisted ovarian cyst
• D. Fibroids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the differential diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy, conditions such as twisted ovarian cysts should be considered. Twisted ovarian cysts can present with similar symptoms to ectopic pregnancy, making it important to include them in the differential diagnosis. Choices A, B, and D are not typically part of the differential diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Inevitable abortion refers to an imminent miscarriage, dysmenorrhea is characterized by painful menstruation, and fibroids are benign growths in the uterus, none of which are directly related to ectopic pregnancy.

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