HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Quizlet
1. At 6-8 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:
- A. Colostrum can be expressed.
 - B. Breasts become tender.
 - C. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.
 - D. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: At 6-8 weeks of pregnancy, one of the changes in the breast includes the prominence of Montgomery's tubercles. These sebaceous glands around the nipple become more noticeable at this stage. Colostrum production usually occurs later in pregnancy, typically closer to the third trimester. While breast tenderness is a common symptom of early pregnancy, it is not specific to the 6-8 week timeframe. Nipples becoming more prominent and mobile may happen later in pregnancy as the body prepares for breastfeeding, but it is not a typical change seen specifically at 6-8 weeks.
2. Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination?
- A. Inspection of internal genitalia
 - B. Inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall
 - C. Palpation of the vagina and vaginal cervix by digital examination
 - D. Rectal examination
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pelvic examination involves the inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall. This is typically done to assess the health of the reproductive organs and screen for any abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while palpation and digital examination may be part of a pelvic exam, the specific focus on the cervix and vaginal wall is a key component that distinguishes it from other types of examinations.
3. What phase corresponds with the luteal phase?
- A. Menstrual phase
 - B. Follicular phase
 - C. Secretory phase
 - D. Menstrual phase
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The luteal phase corresponds with the secretory phase. During the menstrual cycle, the luteal phase follows ovulation and is characterized by the development of the corpus luteum, secreting progesterone to prepare the endometrium for a potential pregnancy. The other choices, menstrual phase (A), follicular phase (B), and the repeated choice of menstrual phase (D) do not align with the luteal phase and its functions.
4. What is the definition of incomplete abortion?
- A. Part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, is expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained.
 - B. All products of conception are expelled, and there is minimal per vaginal bleeding.
 - C. The cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus.
 - D. The cervix dilates, and the products of conception are expelled.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Incomplete abortion is defined as part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, being expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained. This is the correct definition, making option A the right choice. Option B is incorrect as it describes a complete abortion. Option C is incorrect because in incomplete abortion, the products of conception are not retained in the uterus, and the cervix may be open. Option D is incorrect as it describes a situation more likely to be seen in an inevitable abortion.
5. Outlet of the true pelvis anteriorly bounded by:
- A. Ischiopubic arch (T)
 - B. Linea terminalis (F)
 - C. Coccyx (T)
 - D. Promontory of the sacrum (F)
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ischiopubic arch. The outlet of the true pelvis is indeed anteriorly bounded by the ischiopubic arch, which consists of the ischium and the pubic bones. This structure forms the lower boundary of the pelvic outlet. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect. The linea terminalis (pelvic brim) forms the upper boundary of the true pelvis, the coccyx is part of the bony pelvis but does not bound the pelvic outlet anteriorly, and the promontory of the sacrum is located in the posterior part of the pelvis, not the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet.
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