layers of anterior abdominal wall include
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Reproductive Health Exam

1. Which of the following are layers of the anterior abdominal wall?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Linear albicantes and B: Superficial fascia. Linear albicantes are stretch marks, and the superficial fascia is one of the layers of the anterior abdominal wall. Choices C and D, Visceral peritoneum and Fascia transversalis, respectively, are not layers of the anterior abdominal wall. The visceral peritoneum is a membrane covering the abdominal organs, and the fascia transversalis is a layer deep to the transversus abdominis muscle.

2. Which of the following is a symptom of menopause?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Insomnia is a common symptom of menopause. During menopause, hormonal changes can lead to sleep disturbances, including difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep. Choice A, 'Bleeding per vagina,' is not a typical symptom of menopause but should prompt further evaluation. Choice B, 'Sleeping all the time,' is not a common symptom of menopause; in fact, insomnia, rather than excessive sleep, is more prevalent. Choice D, 'Increased concentration,' is not a symptom of menopause; cognitive changes like forgetfulness or difficulty concentrating may occur, but increased concentration is not a typical manifestation.

3. Which of these methods can be used for the transfer of zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer). ZIFT involves transferring a zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube. GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer - A) involves transferring unfertilized eggs and sperm into the fallopian tube for fertilization to occur inside the woman's body, not a zygote or early embryo. IUT (Intrauterine Transfer - B) is not specifically for transferring the zygote or early embryo into the fallopian tube, but rather into the uterus. ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection - D) is a technique where a single sperm is injected directly into an egg, not related to transferring embryos into the fallopian tube.

4. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen is primarily responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics. Progesterone, while important in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy, is not primarily responsible for secondary sexual characteristics. Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone. Oxytocin is involved in labor, lactation, and social bonding, but not in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics.

5. This is a way of grouping clients according to their reproductive needs during a counseling session, in order to meet each individual client's specific needs:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Profiling is the correct answer. Profiling involves categorizing clients based on their reproductive needs during counseling to tailor the support to each client's unique requirements. Choice A, 'Gather method,' is not a recognized term in this context. Choice C, 'Confidentiality,' is important but does not relate directly to grouping clients based on reproductive needs. Choice D, 'One-to-one counseling,' refers to individual sessions and does not specifically address the grouping of clients based on their reproductive needs.

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