Nursing Elites

1. Amniocentesis deals with patterns of ______ in the amniotic fluid.

• A. Fingers
• B. DNA
• C. Chromosomes
• D. Proteins

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a prenatal test that involves examining chromosomes in the amniotic fluid to detect genetic abnormalities. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Chromosomes.' The other choices, such as 'Fingers,' 'DNA,' and 'Proteins,' do not accurately represent what is analyzed during an amniocentesis procedure and are unrelated to the genetic information obtained through this test.

2. Discuss the anatomical/physiological changes in pregnancy related to the breasts.

• A. Breast tenderness increases, circulatory supply to the breasts increases, leading to breast enlargement, and colostrum secretion occurs.
• B. Breast tenderness decreases, and there is no significant change in breast size.
• C. Breast changes include decreased tenderness and reduced circulatory supply.
• D. Breasts do not undergo significant changes during pregnancy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, the breasts undergo significant anatomical and physiological changes. These changes include increased breast tenderness, an increase in circulatory supply to the breasts, resulting in breast enlargement, and the secretion of colostrum. Choice B is incorrect as breast tenderness actually increases during pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as the circulatory supply to the breasts increases rather than reduces. Choice D is incorrect as breasts do undergo notable changes during pregnancy.

3. Which hormone is released from the testes?

• A. Progesterone
• B. Vasopressin
• C. Testosterone
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is testosterone. Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone produced in the testes. Progesterone is a female sex hormone primarily produced in the ovaries, not in the testes. Vasopressin is a hormone released by the pituitary gland to regulate water balance in the body, not produced by the testes. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

4. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?

• A. Cervical excitation test
• B. Chadwick sign
• C. Jacquiners sign
• D. Palmers sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.

5. What is the role of the corpus luteum during the menstrual cycle?

• A. The corpus luteum produces estrogen to maintain the endometrium.
• B. The corpus luteum produces progesterone to maintain the endometrium.
• C. The corpus luteum produces testosterone to inhibit ovulation.
• D. The corpus luteum has no significant role during the menstrual cycle.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The corpus luteum produces progesterone to maintain the endometrium during the menstrual cycle. This hormone helps prepare the uterine lining for implantation in case fertilization occurs. Choice A is incorrect because estrogen is mainly produced by the developing follicles in the ovaries. Choice C is incorrect as testosterone is produced in smaller amounts by the ovaries and adrenal glands but does not play a significant role in maintaining the endometrium. Choice D is incorrect as the corpus luteum plays a crucial role in producing progesterone to support the endometrium.

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