HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. Which policy was formally launched to target reducing population growth, making family planning services available, accessible, and affordable to all eligible users?
- A. The reproductive health policy
- B. The ministry of health policy
- C. Gender and health policy
- D. The national population policy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the national population policy. This policy was specifically launched to address population growth by providing access to family planning services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly focus on population control and family planning services, which are the primary objectives of the national population policy.
2. At 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:
- A. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
- B. Colostrum can be expressed.
- C. Breasts become tender.
- D. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, Montgomery's tubercles become prominent. These are sebaceous glands on the areola, not the nipples. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the changes in nipples, not Montgomery's tubercles. Choice B is incorrect as colostrum production usually starts around the 16th week. Choice C is incorrect as breast tenderness is more common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes.
3. During an ectopic pregnancy, what is the likelihood of a rupture in the ampullary portion of the tube?
- A. Frequent
- B. Uncommon
- C. Occasional
- D. Never
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During an ectopic pregnancy, a rupture in the ampullary portion of the tube is frequent. This is due to the increased pressure within the fallopian tube as the embryo grows, leading to the rupture of the tube. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the common occurrence of rupture in this specific part of the tube during an ectopic pregnancy.
4. Which of the following is not a barrier method of birth control?
- A. Vaults
- B. Diaphragms
- C. Sterilization
- D. Cervical caps
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Sterilization. Sterilization is a permanent form of birth control that involves surgical procedures to prevent pregnancy by blocking the fallopian tubes or vas deferens. Barrier methods physically prevent sperm from reaching the egg, such as vaults, diaphragms, and cervical caps. These devices create a barrier to sperm, unlike sterilization. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are all considered barrier methods of birth control.
5. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?
- A. Threatened
- B. Imminent
- C. Missed
- D. Incomplete
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access