Nursing Elites

1. Which policy was formally launched to target reducing population growth, making family planning services available, accessible, and affordable to all eligible users?

• A. The reproductive health policy
• B. The ministry of health policy
• C. Gender and health policy
• D. The national population policy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, the national population policy. This policy was specifically launched to address population growth by providing access to family planning services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly focus on population control and family planning services, which are the primary objectives of the national population policy.

2. How many arteries are there in an umbilical cord?

• A. Three
• B. One
• C. Two
• D. Four

Correct answer: C

Rationale: There are two arteries in an umbilical cord. The umbilical cord contains two arteries and one vein. Artery carries blood away from the fetus, while the vein returns blood to the fetus. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the correct number of arteries in an umbilical cord.

3. What does Informed Consent mean?

• A. A patient has the right to know what a procedure involves before it is performed.
• B. Forcing all patients scheduled for surgery to sign a consent form.
• C. Telling the patient to sign the consent form without explanation.
• D. Allowing patients to undergo procedures without their consent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed Consent means that a patient has the right to be informed about what a procedure involves before it is performed. Choice B is incorrect because consent should not be forced, and patients should have the opportunity to understand what they are agreeing to. Choice C is incorrect as it goes against the essence of informed consent, which requires explanation. Choice D is incorrect as it contradicts the fundamental principle of requiring patient consent before procedures.

4. Which of the following is a common presentation in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome?

• A. Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism
• B. Amenorrhea, generalized hair loss, and weight gain
• C. Repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain
• D. Fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) commonly presents with irregular periods (oligomenorrhea), obesity, and increased hair growth (hirsutism) due to hormonal imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as amenorrhea (absence of periods), generalized hair loss, and weight gain are not typical features of PCOS. Choice C is incorrect as repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain are not characteristic of PCOS. Choice D is incorrect as fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding) are not primary symptoms seen in PCOS.

5. Amniocentesis, a prenatal diagnostic test used to determine fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities, is based on:

• A. The karyotyping of the amniotic fluid
• B. Chorionic villus sampling
• C. Umbilical cord blood sampling
• D. Ultrasound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of the fetal cells present in the amniotic fluid, which is extracted from the amniotic sac surrounding the developing fetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the fetus, which can be cultured and analyzed to obtain a karyotype, providing information about the fetal sex, genetic anomalies, and biochemical abnormalities. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the chorionic villi from the placenta, not the amniotic fluid; umbilical cord blood sampling is typically used for other purposes like assessing the baby's blood for infections or genetic disorders; and ultrasound is a diagnostic imaging technique that does not involve the analysis of fetal cells for genetic information.

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