Nursing Elites

1. Which behavior by a new nurse would indicate to the charge nurse that this nurse is following standard precautions?

• A. Wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant
• B. Wearing the same gloves for assessments of clients in the same room
• C. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the urine bag and nasogastric canister of an infected client
• D. Donning a gown when responding to a request by the family to check the IV pump on a client with rotavirus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is wearing clean gloves while performing a heel stick on an infant. Standard precautions require the use of gloves when there is a risk of exposure to blood or body fluids. Clean gloves are suitable for this task as they provide adequate protection without being sterile. Choice B is incorrect because wearing the same gloves for different clients can lead to cross-contamination, violating standard precautions. Choice C is incorrect as sterile gloves are usually not required for changing a urine bag and nasogastric canister unless a specific aseptic technique is indicated; standard precautions do not demand sterile gloves for such tasks. Choice D is incorrect as donning a gown is not necessary for checking an IV pump unless there is a risk of exposure to bodily fluids that would necessitate full-body protection, which is not indicated in this scenario.

2. After a client with an Automated Internal Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD) is successfully defibrillated for Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), what should the nurse do next?

• A. Go to the client to assess for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
• B. Call the physician to inform them of the VF episode for medication adjustments.
• C. Call the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD in case of a recurrence.
• D. Document the incident on the code report form and follow up regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a client is successfully defibrillated, the immediate priority is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output, such as altered level of consciousness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or hypotension. This assessment is crucial to determine the effectiveness of the defibrillation and the client's current hemodynamic status. Calling the physician for medication adjustments without assessing the client first could delay essential interventions. Contacting the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD is not the initial action needed after successful defibrillation. Documenting the incident is important but should not take precedence over assessing the client's immediate condition.

3. What is pica?

• A. dependency on alcohol
• B. increased iron in the diet
• C. the sickle cell trait
• D. eating ice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pica is a disorder characterized by the ingestion of nonfood substances, which can lead to a clinical iron deficiency. It may be the first sign of an underlying issue. Individuals with pica consume a variety of nonfood items such as ice, clay, dirt, or paste. Choice A, dependency on alcohol, is incorrect as it is not related to pica. Choice B, increased iron in the diet, is incorrect because pica involves ingesting nonfood items rather than having an increased intake of iron. Choice C, the sickle cell trait, is unrelated to pica and is therefore incorrect.

4. Which of the following blood pressure parameters indicates PIH? Elevation over a baseline of:

• A. 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic.
• B. 40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.
• C. 10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic.
• D. 20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic. These parameters indicate mild PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension). Mild preeclampsia is characterized by an increase in systolic blood pressure greater than 30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure greater than 15 mmHg, observed on two readings taken 6 hours apart (or reaching 140/90). Choice B (40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) represents a more significant elevation and would indicate a more severe condition than mild PIH. Choices C (10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic) and D (20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) do not meet the criteria for indicating PIH as they are below the accepted parameters for mild PIH.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.

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