NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The client is admitted with a period of unobserved loss of consciousness and now has an EEG scheduled this morning. What should the nurse implement?
- A. Keep NPO and hold medication.
- B. Hold sedatives, but allow the client to have breakfast and give other medicines.
- C. Administer medications, but hold anticonvulsants.
- D. Give additional fluids and some caffeine prior to the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Prior to an EEG, it is essential for the client to eat to prevent a drop in blood sugar levels. The nurse should hold sedatives but allow the client to have breakfast and administer other necessary medications. Holding sedatives is crucial to ensure accurate EEG results, while providing breakfast helps maintain stable blood sugar levels. Administering other medications, excluding sedatives, is important for the client's overall care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because keeping the client NPO and holding medications, administering medications but holding anticonvulsants, and giving additional fluids and caffeine are not appropriate actions before an EEG.
2. When dressing a severe burn to the right hand, it is important for the nurse to:
- A. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing for debridement
- B. Wrap each digit individually to prevent webbing
- C. Open blisters to allow drainage prior to dressing
- D. Allow the client to do as much of the dressing change as possible
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When dressing a severe burn to the hand, it is crucial to wrap each digit individually to prevent webbing, which can lead to contractures and impaired function. Applying a wet-to-dry dressing for debridement is not recommended for burn wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed during removal. Opening blisters can increase the risk of infection and delay healing. Allowing the client to perform the dressing change may not ensure proper care and can lead to complications.
3. Which of the following classifications of medications is used to help decrease tremors for clients with hyperthyroidism?
- A. Steroids
- B. Anticonvulsants
- C. Beta blockers
- D. Iodine compounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Beta blockers. Beta blockers are commonly used to help decrease tremors in clients with hyperthyroidism by blocking the action of adrenaline. This helps to control symptoms such as rapid heart rate, tremors, and anxiety. Steroids (Choice A) are not typically used to treat tremors in hyperthyroidism. Anticonvulsants (Choice B) are primarily used to control seizures and are not the first-line treatment for tremors in hyperthyroidism. Iodine compounds (Choice D) are used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism by reducing the production of thyroid hormones but are not specifically indicated for tremor relief.
4. A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:
- A. is given after the D10W is finished.
- B. should be given at the time it is due in the medication port closest to the client.
- C. can be piggybacked into the D10W solution now.
- D. is incompatible with dextrose solutions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.
5. One day postoperative, the client complains of dyspnea, and his respiratory rate (RR) is 35, slightly labored, and there are no breath sounds in the lower-right base. The nurse should suspect:
- A. cor pulmonale.
- B. atelectasis.
- C. pulmonary embolism.
- D. cardiac tamponade.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is atelectasis. The absence of breath sounds in the lower-right base is a key finding in atelectasis, which occurs when a portion of the lung collapses. The other symptoms such as dyspnea and increased respiratory rate could be present in various pulmonary conditions. Cor pulmonale is typically associated with chronic lung disease, pulmonary embolism presents with sudden onset dyspnea and chest pain, and cardiac tamponade manifests with Beck's triad of hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled heart sounds.
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