NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care
1. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:
- A. Pregnancy tests are not reliable while taking the drug.
- B. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
- C. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
- D. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.
2. During surgery, it is found that a client with adenocarcinoma of the rectum has positive peritoneal lymph nodes. What is the next most likely site of metastasis?
- A. brain
- B. bone
- C. liver
- D. mediastinum
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of adenocarcinoma of the rectum with positive peritoneal lymph nodes, the most likely site of metastasis is the liver. Colon tumors commonly spread through the lymphatics and portal vein to the liver. While metastasis to the brain, bone, or mediastinum is possible, the liver is typically the first to be affected due to the anatomical pathways involved in colorectal cancer metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is the liver. Metastasis to the brain, bone, or mediastinum would be less likely at this stage of colorectal cancer progression.
3. When ambulating a client with right-sided weakness, a nursing assistant should be positioned on which side of the client?
- A. Stands behind the client
- B. Positions the free hand on the client's shoulder
- C. Stands on the right side of the client
- D. Grasps the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client's back
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When ambulating a client with right-sided weakness, the nursing assistant should stand on the affected side, which in this case is the client's right side. This position allows the assistant to provide proper support and assistance. Standing behind the client (Choice A) is incorrect as the assistant should be on the affected side. Positioning the free hand on the client's shoulder (Choice B) is a correct action as it helps in pulling the client toward them in case of a forward fall. Grasping the security belt in the midspine area of the small of the client's back (Choice D) is also correct to provide support and stability during ambulation.
4. A nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client's lung has reexpanded and notifies the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to ask that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Explain the procedure to the client, then remove the chest tube.
- B. Call the nursing supervisor.
- C. Inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure.
- D. Obtain petrolatum-impregnated gauze and ask another nurse to assist in removing the chest tube.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure. Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a healthcare provider. If the healthcare provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agencies' policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse to remove a chest tube, but there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should not proceed with removing the chest tube without proper authorization. Choice B is incorrect as calling the nursing supervisor should come after clarifying with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not begin the process of removing the chest tube without proper guidance and authorization.
5. When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, the nurse should administer:
- A. Indomethacin
- B. Codeine
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Compazine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, Compazine is the appropriate medication to administer. Compazine, also known as prochlorperazine, is commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Indomethacin, Codeine, and Ibuprofen are not typically used to manage nausea associated with Morphine epidural analgesia.
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