Nursing Elites

1. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:

• A. Pregnancy tests are not reliable while taking the drug.
• B. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
• C. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
• D. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.

2. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

3. Nail and foot care are essential in meeting the basic hygiene needs of clients. Important assessments by the nurse in this area include:

• A. a full-body assessment is not specific to nail and foot care.
• B. the essential lab work of the client is not related to nail and foot assessments.
• C. the nail beds and the tissue surrounding the nails.
• D. foot corns and calluses only neglect other important aspects of nail and foot care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the nail beds and the tissue surrounding the nails. This assessment is crucial to identify abnormal discoloration, lesions, paronychia, dryness, breaks in the skin, pressure areas, or any other unusual appearances. Choice A is incorrect as a full-body assessment is broader and not specific to nail and foot care. Choice B is incorrect as lab work is not directly related to nail and foot assessments. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses only on foot corns and calluses, neglecting other important aspects of nail and foot care.

4. What is a true statement about post-discharge follow-up?

• A. The nurse should ensure the client is educated on their discharge instructions.
• B. If the client seems stable, they likely do not need a follow-up visit.
• C. The physician is responsible for ensuring the client has their prescriptions upon discharge.
• D. If the client has questions, the nurse should address them before discharge.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is that the nurse should ensure the client is educated on their discharge instructions. This is crucial to promote continuity of care and prevent adverse events. The responsibility of educating the client falls on the nurse, not assuming stability without a follow-up visit. While the physician may prescribe medications, it is the nurse's responsibility to ensure the client has them before discharge. Instructing the client to bring up questions at a follow-up appointment is not ideal; all questions should be addressed before discharge to ensure the client's understanding and compliance.

5. A nurse is performing suctioning through an adult client's tracheostomy tube. The nurse notes that the client's oxygen saturation is 89% and terminates the procedure. Which action would the nurse take next?

• A. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading
• B. Calling the respiratory therapist
• C. Calling the healthcare provider
• D. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate and pulse oximetry during suctioning to assess the client's tolerance of the procedure. Oxygen desaturation to below 90% indicates hypoxemia. If hypoxia occurs during suctioning, the nurse must terminate the procedure and oxygenate the client with 100% oxygen to address the hypoxemia promptly and ensure the client's safety. Rechecking the pulse oximetry reading is important, but the priority is to address the hypoxemia by providing oxygen. Contacting the healthcare provider or respiratory therapist is not necessary at this time as the nurse can manage the hypoxemia with oxygenation. Oxygenating the client with 100% oxygen is the immediate action required in this situation.

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