Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy?

• A. Fowler's
• B. Modified Sims
• C. Side lying
• D. Flat supine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy is side lying. This position promotes comfort with the knees flexed and ensures proper airway management. Fowler's position (Choice A) would not be ideal as it involves sitting at a 90-degree angle, potentially causing discomfort after this procedure. Modified Sims position (Choice B) is typically used for rectal examinations, not for post-surgical management. Flat supine (Choice D) may not be the best choice immediately after surgery as it does not provide the same level of comfort and airway protection as side lying with knees flexed.

2. When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the PN should emphasize:

• A. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance.
• B. When started, therapy must not be interrupted to prevent opportunistic infection.
• C. Therapy should not be interrupted for one day each month to prevent toxicity.
• D. Therapy should not be interrupted for one week every three months to prevent toxicity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When teaching a client about anti-retroviral therapy for HIV, it is crucial to emphasize that therapy must not be interrupted to prevent viral resistance. HIV mutates rapidly, and any interruption can lead to the emergence of resistant strains, compromising treatment effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because keeping the virus in check with anti-retrovirals helps the client's immune system fight off opportunistic infections. Choices C and D are incorrect because therapy should not be interrupted for any reason. If toxicity occurs, the healthcare provider may adjust the treatment regimen by prescribing alternative anti-retroviral drugs.

3. Which client should the nurse see first?

• A. Recurring crushing chest pain
• B. Needing an IV for surgery in 5 minutes
• C. Needing PCA morphine for pain control post-hysterectomy
• D. Waiting to get back to bed after sitting in a chair for 30 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client presenting with recurring crushing chest pain should be seen first as this symptom could indicate a myocardial infarction (MI), which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. Assessing and managing potential cardiac issues take priority over other concerns like needing an IV for surgery, pain control post-hysterectomy, or assistance with mobility. While all clients require care, addressing the chest pain promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

4. A client had a C5 spinal cord contusion that resulted in quadriplegia. Two days after the injury occurred, the nurse sees his mother crying in the waiting room. The mother asks the nurse whether her son will ever play football again. Which of the following is the best initial response?

• A. "Given time and motivation, your son may regain some function, but I will seek more information from the physician."?
• B. Maintain a calm demeanor and speech pattern while addressing the mother's concerns.
• C. "I'm not sure, but I'll call the physician to discuss this with you promptly."?
• D. "It's not beneficial for your son if you get upset."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial response in this situation is to acknowledge the mother's concern, express uncertainty, and offer to obtain more information from the physician. By saying, "I'm not sure, but I'll call the physician to discuss this with you promptly,"? the nurse demonstrates empathy, honesty, and a commitment to providing accurate information. Offering vague reassurance (Choice A) may raise false hopes as outcomes for spinal cord injuries are unpredictable. While maintaining a calm demeanor (Choice B) is important, it does not directly address the mother's immediate need for information. Discouraging the mother from feeling upset (Choice D) is dismissive of her emotions and does not address her question, which is seeking information about her son's prognosis.

5. After a client with an Automated Internal Cardiac Defibrillator (AICD) is successfully defibrillated for Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), what should the nurse do next?

• A. Go to the client to assess for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output.
• B. Call the physician to inform them of the VF episode for medication adjustments.
• C. Call the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD in case of a recurrence.
• D. Document the incident on the code report form and follow up regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a client is successfully defibrillated, the immediate priority is to assess the client for signs and symptoms of decreased cardiac output, such as altered level of consciousness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or hypotension. This assessment is crucial to determine the effectiveness of the defibrillation and the client's current hemodynamic status. Calling the physician for medication adjustments without assessing the client first could delay essential interventions. Contacting the 'on-call' person in the cath lab to re-charge the ICD is not the initial action needed after successful defibrillation. Documenting the incident is important but should not take precedence over assessing the client's immediate condition.

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