what is the best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX Question of The Day

1. What is the best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy is side lying. This position promotes comfort with the knees flexed and ensures proper airway management. Fowler's position (Choice A) would not be ideal as it involves sitting at a 90-degree angle, potentially causing discomfort after this procedure. Modified Sims position (Choice B) is typically used for rectal examinations, not for post-surgical management. Flat supine (Choice D) may not be the best choice immediately after surgery as it does not provide the same level of comfort and airway protection as side lying with knees flexed.

2. The nurse should plan to evaluate the earliest onset of effectiveness of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) sublingual (SL) within what time frame?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The onset of action for Nitrostat SL is 1 to 3 minutes. Therefore, the nurse should plan to evaluate the earliest onset of effectiveness within 3 minutes after administering the medication. Option A, 15 seconds, is too short of a time frame for the onset of action of Nitrostat. Option C, 5 minutes, is slightly delayed compared to the typical onset time. Option D, 15 minutes, is too long to wait for evaluating the effectiveness of Nitrostat sublingual administration.

3. The nurse is caring for a client complaining of intense headaches with increasing pain for the past one month. An MRI is ordered. In reviewing the client's information, which piece of information is of concern?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Has a cardiac pacemaker.' If a client with a cardiac pacemaker undergoes an MRI, the magnetic field can interfere with the pacemaker's function, leading to serious complications or even death. It is crucial to ensure that the pacemaker is compatible with MRI imaging or to consider alternative imaging modalities. The other choices, such as 'Allergy to shellfish,' 'A diabetic,' and 'No IV access,' are not direct contraindications for an MRI scan and do not pose the same level of risk as having a cardiac pacemaker.

4. A patient has recently been prescribed Zidovudine (Retrovir). The patient has AIDS. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and anemia.' Zidovudine (Retrovir) is known to cause anemia as a side effect due to its impact on the bone marrow. Fever is also a common side effect associated with Zidovudine use. Therefore, the patient should watch out for these specific side effects. Choice A (Weakness and SOB) is incorrect as shortness of breath (SOB) is not a commonly reported side effect of Zidovudine. Choice C (Hypertension and SOB) and Choice D (Fever and hypertension) are unrelated to the known side effects of Zidovudine, making them incorrect.

5. The nurse overhears two nursing students talking about a client in the cafeteria. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the students that discussing a client in a public area like the cafeteria violates HIPAA regulations. This is important to educate the students about patient confidentiality and the consequences of breaching it. Reporting to the nursing supervisor or faculty should come after addressing the students directly. Writing up a variance report is not the immediate action needed in this situation, as educating the students about their mistake should be the priority. It is essential to address the issue at the source by educating the students first rather than escalating the matter to supervisors or faculty immediately.

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