Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy?

• A. Fowler's
• B. Modified Sims
• C. Side lying
• D. Flat supine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy is side lying. This position promotes comfort with the knees flexed and ensures proper airway management. Fowler's position (Choice A) would not be ideal as it involves sitting at a 90-degree angle, potentially causing discomfort after this procedure. Modified Sims position (Choice B) is typically used for rectal examinations, not for post-surgical management. Flat supine (Choice D) may not be the best choice immediately after surgery as it does not provide the same level of comfort and airway protection as side lying with knees flexed.

2. A nurse working in a pediatric clinic observes bruises on the body of a four-year-old boy. The parents report the boy fell while riding his bike. The bruises are located on his posterior chest wall and gluteal region. What should the nurse do?

• A. Suggest a script for counseling the family to the doctor on duty.
• B. Recommend a warm bath for the boy to decrease healing time.
• C. Notify the case manager in the clinic about possible child abuse concerns.
• D. Recommend ROM exercises to the patient's spine to decrease healing time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is observing bruises on a child's body that are located in areas not commonly associated with accidental injuries. Given the concerning nature of the bruising pattern and the inconsistent history provided by the parents, the nurse should suspect possible child abuse and take appropriate action by notifying the case manager in the clinic. The safety and well-being of the child should always be the top priority. Counseling for the family, warm baths, or recommending range of motion (ROM) exercises are not appropriate actions in this situation and may not address the underlying issue of potential child abuse.

3. A nurse is teaching a client newly diagnosed with Emphysema about the disease process. Which of the following statements best explains the problems associated with emphysema and could be adapted for use in the nurse's discussion with the client?

• A. Hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi caused by an inflammatory response leads to wheezing and tightness in the chest.
• B. Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.
• C. Vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema cause a chronic cough and sputum production.
• D. Chloride is not being transported properly, producing excess absorption of water and sodium, and thick viscous mucus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is: 'Larger than normal air spaces and loss of elastic recoil cause air to be trapped in the lung and collapse airways.' Emphysema is a breakdown of the elastin and fiber network of the alveoli where the alveoli enlarge or the walls are destroyed. This alveolar destruction leads to the formation of larger-than-normal air spaces. Emphysema is one of a group of pulmonary diseases of a chronic nature characterized by increased resistance to airflow; the entity is part of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Choice A is incorrect because emphysema is not primarily characterized by hyperactivity of the medium-sized bronchi causing wheezing and tightness in the chest. Choice C is incorrect because vasodilation, congestion, and mucosal edema are not the primary mechanisms involved in emphysema, and they do not directly lead to chronic cough and sputum production. Choice D is incorrect because emphysema is not related to chloride transport issues and thick viscous mucus production.

4. The client is wheezing and struggling to breathe. Which of the inhaled medications is indicated at this time?

• A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
• B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
• C. Theophylline (Theodur)
• D. Albuterol (Atrovent)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol (Atrovent) because it is a rapid-acting bronchodilator, essential for a client experiencing wheezing and difficulty breathing. Albuterol acts quickly, dilating the airways and providing immediate relief in cases of respiratory distress. Fluticasone (Flovent) and Salmeterol (Serevent) are maintenance medications for long-term asthma control, not suitable for acute situations described. Theophylline (Theodur) is a bronchodilator but with a slower onset compared to Albuterol, making it less appropriate for a client in immediate distress.

5. Which of the following is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms of Type II Diabetes treatment?

• A. Medications
• B. Nutrition
• C. Increased activity
• D. Continuous Insulin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Continuous Insulin is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms for treating Type II Diabetes. While medications, nutrition, and increased activity play crucial roles in managing Type II Diabetes, continuous insulin therapy is more common in Type I Diabetes or in specific cases of Type II Diabetes where other treatments are ineffective. Therefore, the correct answer is Continuous Insulin. Choices A, B, and C are mainstays in the treatment of Type II Diabetes, making them incorrect answers.

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