Nursing Elites

1. When the nurse who was not promoted first read the memo and learned that the other nurse had received the promotion, she left the room in tears. This behavior is an example of:

• A. conversion.
• B. regression
• C. introjection.
• D. rationalization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Crying is a regressive behavior. The ego returned to an earlier, comforting, and less-mature way of behaving in the face of disappointment. Regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development to cope with stress or conflict. In this scenario, the nurse regressed to a childlike state by crying when faced with the disappointment of not getting the promotion, demonstrating regression as a defense mechanism. Conversion involves transforming anxiety into a physical symptom. Introjection involves unconsciously identifying intensely with another person. Rationalization involves unconsciously creating acceptable explanations to justify unacceptable ideas, actions, or feelings. Therefore, the correct answer is regression as it aligns with the nurse's behavior of regressing to a childlike state by crying due to the disappointment of not receiving the promotion.

2. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

3. A 12-year-old male is brought to his primary care provider to determine whether sexual abuse has occurred. The mother states, 'Because there is no permanent physical damage, he does not need any more treatment.' The nurse's response should be based on which of the following pieces of information?

• A. Male victims of sexual abuse can have long-term psychological problems.
• B. Survivors of male sexual abuse might become confused about their sexual identity.
• C. Unless treated, all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children.
• D. All children who have been sexually abused have the same needs, regardless of gender.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Male children are sexually abused nearly as often as female children. Perpetrators are usually men but can be women. Needs of male children who have been sexually abused might be different from the needs of female survivors. Male survivors might respond in anger, question their sexuality, use alcohol and other drugs, and might try to prove their masculinity by performing daring acts. It is crucial for the nurse to consider these potential outcomes, making choice B the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because male victims of sexual abuse can indeed have long-term psychological problems, so the nurse should be aware of this issue. Choice C is incorrect as not all male sex abuse survivors grow up to abuse other children, which is a misconception. Choice D is incorrect because the needs of children who have been sexually abused can vary based on various factors, including gender, so it is important to consider individual differences.

4. A client sitting alone and talking to voices is observed by a nurse. When asked, the client reports he is 'talking to the voices.' The nurse's next action should be:

• A. touching the client to help him return to reality
• B. leaving the client alone until reality returns
• C. asking the client to describe what is happening
• D. telling the client there are no voices

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client reports talking to voices, it can indicate the presence of hallucinations. Asking the client to describe what is happening is a crucial step as it helps the nurse understand the nature of the hallucinations and provides reassurance to the client. Touching the client without consent is inappropriate and can be distressing. Leaving the client alone may not address the underlying issue, and telling the client there are no voices denies their experience and can lead to mistrust.

5. During the history assessment of an 80-year-old client, which statement made by the client might indicate a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance?

• A. "My skin is always so dry."?
• B. "I often use a laxative for constipation."?
• C. "I have always liked to drink a lot of iced tea."?
• D. "I sometimes have a problem with dribbling urine."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is "I often use a laxative for constipation." Frequent use of laxatives can lead to diarrhea and electrolyte loss, indicating a possible fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statements A, C, and D are not directly related to fluid and electrolyte imbalance. Statement A about dry skin may suggest dehydration, but it is less specific to electrolyte imbalance than the frequent use of laxatives. Statement C about drinking a lot of iced tea could potentially relate to fluid intake, but it doesn't directly indicate an imbalance. Statement D about dribbling urine is more indicative of a potential urinary issue rather than a fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

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