Nursing Elites

1. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

• A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
• B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
• C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
• D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.

2. The nurse suspects an elderly client has been the victim of abuse. The client denies abuse and declines assistance. The nurse's next action should be to:

• A. respect the client's decision to refuse assistance.
• B. report the incident to the authorities.
• C. arrange an appointment with the client's family.
• D. educate the client about available services.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases where elderly clients deny abuse and refuse assistance, it is crucial for the nurse to respect their autonomy while also ensuring their safety. Educating the client about available services is the appropriate action as it empowers the client with information without imposing any decisions on them. It allows the client to make informed choices regarding their well-being. Reporting the incident to the authorities (Choice B) may be necessary if there is immediate danger, but in this scenario, the client denies abuse. Arranging an appointment with the client's family (Choice C) may not be appropriate without the client's consent or in cases where the family might be involved in the abuse. Simply doing nothing (Choice A) is not the best course of action as the nurse should still provide support and resources to the client.

3. The child with seizure disorder is being treated with Dilantin (phenytoin). Which of the following statements by the patient's mother indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a side effect of Dilantin therapy?

• A. "She is very irritable lately."?
• B. "She sleeps quite a bit of the time."?
• C. "Her gums look too big for her teeth."?
• D. "She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is '"Her gums look too big for her teeth."?' Hyperplasia of the gums is a known side effect associated with Dilantin therapy. Option A, '"She is very irritable lately,"?' is not a typical side effect of Dilantin. Option B, '"She sleeps quite a bit of the time,"?' is a common side effect of Dilantin but not specific to gum hyperplasia. Option D, '"She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months,"?' is not typically associated with Dilantin therapy and is unrelated to the question.

4. A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for:

• A. Trendelenburg position
• B. Ice to the entire extremity
• C. Buck's traction
• D. An abduction pillow

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Buck's traction. This intervention is used to realign the fractured femur, reduce spasms, and alleviate pain. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is inappropriate for a femur fracture, making answer A incorrect. While ice may be used post-repair, applying it to the entire extremity is unnecessary, so answer B is wrong. An abduction pillow is typically employed following a total hip replacement, not for a fractured femur, rendering answer D incorrect.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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