Nursing Elites

1. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

• A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
• B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
• C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
• D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.

2. Which nurse should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia?

• A. The nurse with 2 weeks of experience on the postpartum unit
• B. The nurse with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery
• C. The nurse with 10 years of experience in surgery
• D. The nurse with 1 year of experience in the neonatal intensive care unit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery (answer B) should be assigned to care for the postpartal client with preeclampsia. This nurse has the most relevant experience and knowledge of possible complications associated with preeclampsia due to their background in labor and delivery. Assigning a nurse with only 2 weeks of experience on the postpartum unit (answer A) would not be suitable for handling the complexities of caring for a client with preeclampsia. Nurses with experience in surgery (answer C) or the neonatal intensive care unit (answer D) lack the specific expertise needed for managing a postpartal client with preeclampsia, making them unsuitable choices for this assignment.

3. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

4. A client can receive the mumps, measles, rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

• A. is pregnant.
• B. is immunocompromised.
• C. is allergic to neomycin.
• D. has a cold.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold. A simple cold without fever does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine due to the live rubella component, which may lead to birth defects or disease. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine according to the American Academy of Pediatrics.

5. A contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in a client with atopic dermatitis (eczema) is:

• A. parasitic infection
• B. fungal infection
• C. spirochetal infection
• D. viral infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Topical corticosteroids are mainly used for their localized effects. When treating atopic dermatitis with a steroidal preparation, there is a risk of the site being vulnerable to invasion by organisms. Viruses like herpes simplex or varicella zoster pose a threat of disseminated infection. Therefore, viral infection is a contraindication for topical corticosteroid use in clients with atopic dermatitis. It is crucial to educate clients using topical corticosteroids to avoid crowds or people with infections and to promptly report any signs of infection. Choices A, B, and C (parasitic, fungal, and spirochetal infections) are not typically contraindications for topical corticosteroid use in the context of atopic dermatitis, as these agents do not pose the same risk of disseminated infection or systemic effects as viral infections.

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