NCLEX-PN
PN Nclex Questions 2024
1. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?
- A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
- B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
- C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
- D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.
2. A client is taking hydrocodone (Vicodin) for chronic back pain. The client has required an increase in the dose and asks whether this means he is addicted to Vicodin. The nurse should base her reply on the knowledge that:
- A. the client's body has developed tolerance, requiring more drug to produce the same effect
- B. the client is preoccupied with getting the drug and is experiencing loss of control, indicating drug dependence
- C. addiction involves psychological behaviors related to substance use, not just physical dependence
- D. the client is coping with chronic back pain and requires adjustments in the medication regimen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client requires an increased dose of a drug, such as in this case with hydrocodone, it suggests that the body has developed tolerance to the medication. Tolerance means that the client needs more of the drug to achieve the same effect as before. This does not inherently indicate addiction, which involves psychological behaviors related to substance use. Choice B describes drug dependence, where the client is preoccupied with obtaining the drug and experiences loss of control, which is not the same as tolerance. Choice C correctly points out that addiction is more than just physical dependence with withdrawal symptoms and tolerance; it includes psychological factors. Choice D is irrelevant as it discusses adjusting the medication for pain management, not addressing the client's concern about addiction.
3. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.
4. What is an effective intervention for a client diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
- A. Discussing the repetitive actions.
- B. Insisting the client not perform the repetitive act.
- C. Informing the client that the act is not necessary.
- D. Encouraging daily exercise.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An effective intervention for a client diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is encouraging daily exercise. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is an anxiety disorder, and exercise can help release emotional energy, limit the time available for maladaptive behaviors, and direct the client's attention outward. Discussing the repetitive actions (choice A) may reinforce the behavior by providing attention to it. Insisting the client not to perform the repetitive act (choice B) can increase anxiety and resistance, as abruptly stopping the behavior may be challenging. Informing the client that the act is not necessary (choice C) may not address the underlying anxiety and could invalidate the client's experiences, leading to increased distress. Encouraging daily exercise is a proactive intervention that can help manage symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder by addressing core features of the disorder and promoting overall well-being.
5. A hospitalized client has just been informed that he has terminal cancer. He says to the nurse, 'There must be some mistake in the diagnosis.' The nurse determines that the client is demonstrating which of the following?
- A. denial
- B. anger
- C. bargaining
- D. acceptance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is denial. In this scenario, the client's statement indicates denial, which is a common reaction in K�bler-Ross's Stages of Grieving. Denial involves the refusal to accept or believe that a loss, such as a terminal illness diagnosis, is happening. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Anger involves feelings of resentment or frustration; Bargaining is an attempt to negotiate or make deals to avoid the situation; Acceptance is the final stage where the individual comes to terms with the reality of the situation.
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