Nursing Elites

1. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

• A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
• B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
• C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
• D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.

2. A client is admitted with Ewing's sarcoma. Which symptoms would be expected due to this tumor's location?

• A. Hemiplegia
• B. Aphasia
• C. Nausea
• D. Bone pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ewing's sarcoma is a type of bone cancer that primarily affects the bones. Therefore, bone pain would be an expected symptom due to this tumor's location. Hemiplegia, which refers to paralysis on one side of the body, Aphasia, a language disorder, and Nausea are not typical symptoms of Ewing's sarcoma. While Nausea is a common symptom in various conditions, it is not specific to bone cancer like Ewing's sarcoma. Therefore, Bone pain is the most likely symptom associated with Ewing's sarcoma.

3. Which of the following roommates would be best for the client newly admitted with gastric resection?

• A. A client with Crohn's disease
• B. A client with pneumonia
• C. A client with gastritis
• D. A client with phlebitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most suitable roommate for the client newly admitted with gastric resection is the client with phlebitis. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the blood vessel and is not infectious, making it a safer option for the surgical client. Crohn's disease clients (choice A) have frequent stools that might spread infections to the surgical client, posing a risk. A client with pneumonia (choice B) is coughing, which can disturb the gastric client's recovery. Additionally, a client with gastritis (choice C) who is vomiting and experiencing diarrhea would also not be an ideal roommate for a client recovering from gastric resection.

4. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the central venous access device (CVAD) rather than through a peripheral IV line if the CVAD becomes infected?

• A. To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line
• B. To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein
• C. To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic
• D. To attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected, administering antibiotics through the line is essential to attempt to eliminate microorganisms within the catheter. The goal is to prevent the necessity of removing the catheter, which might be required if the infection persists. Choice A, 'To prevent infiltration of the peripheral line,' is incorrect as the priority is addressing the catheter infection, not preventing issues with a peripheral line. Choice B, 'To reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein,' is not relevant to the rationale for choosing the CVAD for antibiotic administration. Choice C, 'To lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic,' is also incorrect as the main focus is managing the catheter-associated infection rather than allergy prevention.

5. When a staff member is observed not following the plan of care for a client with an antisocial personality disorder, what should the nurse do?

• A. confront the staff member immediately and say, "You know that is not the treatment plan."?
• B. write an incident report to create a paper trail of the staff member's failure to follow the planned program.
• C. ask the staff member to talk in private, and reinforce how antisocial clients try to divide staff.
• D. bring up the incident during the weekly conference so that this staff member is not assigned to work with antisocial persons again.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a staff member is observed not following the plan of care for a client with an antisocial personality disorder, it is crucial to address the issue promptly and effectively. Confronting the staff member immediately in front of the client may worsen the situation by enhancing the division of staff and compromising client care. Writing an incident report, although important for documentation, may not address the immediate need to correct the behavior. Bringing up the incident during a weekly conference may not be the most effective approach for immediate resolution. Asking the staff member to talk in private and reinforcing how antisocial clients try to divide staff is the best option. This approach allows for a constructive conversation to address the issue, provide education, and help the staff member develop skills to work effectively with this client population.

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