NCLEX-PN
PN Nclex Questions 2024
1. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?
- A. "I can drink alcohol now that I am decreasing my Xanax."?
- B. "I should not take another Xanax pill. Here is what is left of my last prescription."?
- C. "I should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, then one pill for one week."?
- D. "I can expect to be sleepy for several days after stopping the medicine."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.
2. The nurse who was not promoted then went to the utility room and slammed several cupboard doors while looking for Kleenex. This behavior exemplifies:
- A. displacement.
- B. sublimation
- C. conversion.
- D. reaction formation.
Correct answer: A.
Rationale: Displacement unconsciously transfers emotions associated with a person, object, or situation to another less threatening person, object, or situation. In this scenario, the nurse slammed doors instead of expressing anger towards the promoted nurse or the administrator who made the promotion decision. Sublimation is the unconscious process of substituting constructive activity for unacceptable impulses. Since slamming cupboard doors is not a constructive activity, this choice is incorrect. Conversion involves transforming anxiety into physical symptoms, which is not demonstrated in the given behavior. Reaction formation keeps unacceptable feelings or behaviors out of awareness by displaying the opposite feeling or behavior, which is not the case here.
3. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?
- A. Atropine sulfate
- B. Furosemide
- C. Prostigmin
- D. Promethazine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.
4. Which intervention should the nurse take first to assist a woman who states that she feels incompetent as the mother of a teenage daughter?
- A. Recommend that she discipline her daughter more strictly and consistently.
- B. Make a list of things she can do to help improve her husband.
- C. Assist the mother to identify what she believes is preventing her success and what she can do to improve.
- D. Explore with the mother what the daughter can do to improve her behavior.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority intervention for a mother who feels incompetent in parenting a teenage daughter is to assist her in identifying the factors contributing to her feelings of inadequacy and help her develop better coping and mothering skills. This approach focuses on addressing the mother's emotional needs and empowering her to improve her situation. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on the daughter's discipline, which may not be the root cause of the mother's feelings. Option B is irrelevant as it focuses on improving her husband, not her parenting skills. Option D is incorrect as it shifts the focus solely to the daughter's behavior, neglecting the mother's emotional needs and self-improvement.
5. A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client's sister signifies abnormal grieving?
- A. "My sister still has episodes of crying, and it's been 3 months since Daddy died."?
- B. "Sally seems to have forgotten the bad things that Daddy did in his lifetime."?
- C. "She really had a hard time after Daddy's funeral. She said that she had a sense of longing."?
- D. "Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.
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