a client has been taking alprazolam xanax for four years to manage anxiety the client reports taking 05 mg four times a day which statement indicates
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

PN Nclex Questions 2024

1. A client has been taking alprazolam (Xanax) for four years to manage anxiety. The client reports taking 0.5 mg four times a day. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching about discontinuing the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client should take three pills per day next week, then two pills for one week, and then one pill for one week. This statement indicates a gradual tapering schedule, which is crucial when discontinuing alprazolam (Xanax) to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because alcohol should be avoided while tapering off benzodiazepines due to the increased risk of respiratory depression. Choice B is incorrect because abruptly stopping alprazolam can lead to withdrawal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while drowsiness can be a side effect of alprazolam, it is not the primary concern when discontinuing the medication; preventing withdrawal symptoms is the priority.

2. When supporting a family who has just experienced a sudden and unexpected death, the nurse needs to know:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that survivors have greater emotional turmoil and shock than when death is expected. Sudden death produces more emotional turmoil and shock in survivors compared to gradual, expected death. Survivors of sudden death do not have the opportunity to engage in anticipatory grief. The unexpectedness of sudden death is the most disturbing and unbalancing factor, leading to heightened emotional turmoil and shock. Choice B is incorrect as survivors of sudden death experience more emotional turmoil and shock. Choice C is incorrect because sudden death brings about a different level of emotional turmoil and shock. Choice D is incorrect as survivors of sudden and unexpected death still go through significant emotional distress.

3. The nurse is participating in discharge teaching for the postpartal client. The nurse is aware that an effective means of managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sitz bath is an effective method for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy after discharge. It helps reduce swelling and promotes healing in the perineal area. Ice packs (option D) are typically used immediately after delivery to provide pain relief. Promethazine (option A) and aspirin (option B) are not indicated for managing discomfort associated with an episiotomy. Promethazine is an antihistamine, and aspirin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, both of which are not commonly used for this purpose.

4. The nurse wishes to decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings. To do this, the nurse should:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario provided, the nurse aims to reduce the client's use of denial and encourage the expression of feelings. Positive reinforcement for each expression of feelings is an effective approach to achieve this goal. By positively reinforcing the client's expression of feelings, the nurse encourages the desired behavior, making it more likely for the client to continue sharing their emotions. This approach creates a supportive and accepting environment for the client. In contrast, telling the client to stop using denial (Choice A) may create resistance and inhibit communication by putting pressure on the client. Instructing the client to express feelings (Choice C) is less effective as it lacks the element of reinforcement that is essential for behavior modification. Challenging the client each time denial is used (Choice D) may lead to defensiveness and hinder the therapeutic relationship, making it a less favorable option.

5. A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acetaminophen overdose does not typically cause life-threatening problems in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands. While prolonged acetaminophen use may increase the risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose primarily affects the liver.

Similar Questions

A client with acute leukemia develops a low white blood cell count. In addition to the institution of isolation, the nurse should:
A 10-month-old child is brought to the Emergency Department because he is difficult to awaken. The nurse notes bruises on both upper arms. These findings are most consistent with:
The client returns to the unit from surgery with a blood pressure of 90/50, pulse 132, respirations 30. Which action by the nurse should receive priority?
What are the three major sequential maturational crises for females?
Which of the following describes the stages of domestic violence in an intimate relationship?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses