Nursing Elites

1. The physician wants to know if a client is tolerating their total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory tests is likely to be ordered?

• A. triglyceride level
• B. liver function tests
• C. a glucose tolerance test
• D. a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The liver is crucial in processing nutrients and medications received through total parenteral nutrition. Liver function tests assess various enzymes produced by the liver, including prothrombin time/partial prothrombin time, serum glutamic oxaloacetic and pyruvic transaminases, gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, albumin, and alkaline phosphatase. Monitoring these enzymes can help determine if the liver is functioning properly to metabolize the nutrients from TPN. Triglyceride levels (Choice A) primarily evaluate the body's ability to clear fats, not specifically related to TPN tolerance. A glucose tolerance test (Choice C) is used to diagnose diabetes by measuring blood glucose levels after ingesting a glucose-rich solution, not directly related to TPN tolerance. A complete blood count (Choice D) assesses blood components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but does not provide specific information about TPN tolerance.

2. What is most important for the healthcare professional to do prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis?

• A. Aspirate to check placement
• B. Ensure the client voids
• C. Irrigate the catheter to maintain patency
• D. Warm the fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to warm the fluids. Warming the dialysis fluids is crucial before initiating peritoneal dialysis to prevent abdominal discomfort and promote vasodilation, which helps in achieving good exchange in the peritoneum. Aspirating to check placement (Choice A) is not typically necessary before initiating peritoneal dialysis. Ensuring the client voids (Choice B) is not directly related to the procedure of peritoneal dialysis. Irrigating the catheter to maintain patency (Choice C) is usually done as part of routine care but is not specifically required prior to initiating peritoneal dialysis. Therefore, the most important action to take before starting peritoneal dialysis is to warm the fluids.

3. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-sided heart failure?

• A. Muscle tetany
• B. Syncope
• C. Numbness
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anxiety.' Anxiety is not a typical sign of right-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure usually presents with symptoms such as muscle tetany, syncope, and numbness. Muscle tetany can occur due to electrolyte imbalances seen in heart failure. Syncope can result from decreased cardiac output, leading to decreased perfusion to the brain. Numbness can occur due to poor circulation. While anxiety can be present in patients with various medical conditions, it is more commonly associated with respiratory acidosis or other psychological factors rather than right-sided heart failure.

4. What is the best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy?

• A. Fowler's
• B. Modified Sims
• C. Side lying
• D. Flat supine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best position for a client immediately following a bilateral salpingooophorectomy is side lying. This position promotes comfort with the knees flexed and ensures proper airway management. Fowler's position (Choice A) would not be ideal as it involves sitting at a 90-degree angle, potentially causing discomfort after this procedure. Modified Sims position (Choice B) is typically used for rectal examinations, not for post-surgical management. Flat supine (Choice D) may not be the best choice immediately after surgery as it does not provide the same level of comfort and airway protection as side lying with knees flexed.

5. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for a client with insomnia?

• A. Ineffective breathing pattern
• B. Disturbed sensory perception
• C. Ineffective coping
• D. Sleep deprivation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Ineffective breathing pattern.' When a client presents with insomnia, assessing for underlying causes is crucial. Sleep apnea, an airway issue, may be a contributing factor to the client's insomnia, making 'Ineffective breathing pattern' the priority. 'Disturbed sensory perception' focuses on alterations in touch, taste, or vision, which are not directly related to insomnia. 'Ineffective coping' addresses a client's inability to manage stress, which, although important, is not the priority in this case. 'Sleep deprivation' is a consequence of insomnia rather than a primary nursing diagnosis.

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