Nursing Elites

1. The physician wants to know if a client is tolerating their total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory tests is likely to be ordered?

• A. triglyceride level
• B. liver function tests
• C. a glucose tolerance test
• D. a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The liver is crucial in processing nutrients and medications received through total parenteral nutrition. Liver function tests assess various enzymes produced by the liver, including prothrombin time/partial prothrombin time, serum glutamic oxaloacetic and pyruvic transaminases, gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, albumin, and alkaline phosphatase. Monitoring these enzymes can help determine if the liver is functioning properly to metabolize the nutrients from TPN. Triglyceride levels (Choice A) primarily evaluate the body's ability to clear fats, not specifically related to TPN tolerance. A glucose tolerance test (Choice C) is used to diagnose diabetes by measuring blood glucose levels after ingesting a glucose-rich solution, not directly related to TPN tolerance. A complete blood count (Choice D) assesses blood components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but does not provide specific information about TPN tolerance.

2. What type of cells create exocrine secretions?

• A. alpha cells
• B. beta cells
• C. acinar cells
• D. plasma cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acinar cells are responsible for creating exocrine secretions, such as enzymes and digestive juices. Alpha cells are found in the pancreas and are responsible for producing glucagon, beta cells produce insulin, and plasma cells are a type of white blood cell involved in immune responses. Therefore, the correct answer is acinar cells, as they specifically produce exocrine secretions.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum. What is the most likely electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypomagnesemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where the client experiences severe nausea and vomiting, the most likely electrolyte imbalance is hypokalemia. Potassium is abundant in the stomach, and excessive vomiting leads to potassium loss. Hypocalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Hypomagnesemia (Choice B) and Hyponatremia (Choice C) are less likely to occur compared to hypokalemia in this condition.

4. A patient has recently been prescribed Zidovudine (Retrovir). The patient has AIDS. Which of the following side effects should the patient specifically watch out for?

• A. Weakness and SOB
• B. Fever and anemia
• C. Hypertension and SOB
• D. Fever and hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and anemia.' Zidovudine (Retrovir) is known to cause anemia as a side effect due to its impact on the bone marrow. Fever is also a common side effect associated with Zidovudine use. Therefore, the patient should watch out for these specific side effects. Choice A (Weakness and SOB) is incorrect as shortness of breath (SOB) is not a commonly reported side effect of Zidovudine. Choice C (Hypertension and SOB) and Choice D (Fever and hypertension) are unrelated to the known side effects of Zidovudine, making them incorrect.

5. The client in the Emergency Department, who has suffered an ankle sprain, should be taught to:

• A. use cold applications to the sprain during the first 24-48 hours.
• B. expect disability to decrease within the first 24 hours of injury
• C. expect pain to decrease within 3 hours after injury.
• D. begin progressive passive and active range of motion exercises immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client suffers an ankle sprain, the nurse should teach them to use cold applications to the sprain during the first 24-48 hours. Cold applications are believed to produce vasoconstriction and reduce the development of edema. Expecting disability to decrease within the first 24 hours of injury (choice B) is incorrect as disability and pain are anticipated to increase during the first 2-3 hours after injury. Expecting pain to decrease within 3 hours after injury (choice C) is also incorrect as pain and swelling usually increase initially. Beginning progressive passive and active range of motion exercises immediately (choice D) is not recommended; these exercises are usually started 2-5 days after the injury, according to the physician's recommendation. Treatment for a sprain involves support, rest, and alternating cold and heat applications. X-ray pictures are often necessary to rule out any fractures.

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