Nursing Elites

1. When educating an obese client about nutritional needs and weight loss, which of the following should not be included?

• A. knowledge of food and food products
• B. development of a positive mental attitude
• C. adequate exercise
• D. starting a fast weight-loss diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When educating an obese client about nutritional needs and weight loss, it is important to cover factors such as knowledge of food and food products, the development of a positive mental attitude, and the importance of adequate exercise. These aspects contribute to a holistic approach to weight management. However, recommending the client to start a fast weight-loss diet should not be included. Fast weight-loss diets can be harmful, leading to health risks, nutrient deficiencies, and unsustainable outcomes. It is crucial to advocate for gradual, sustainable weight loss strategies to ensure long-term success and overall well-being. Therefore, starting a fast weight-loss diet is the least appropriate option among the choices provided.

2. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to opiate overdose. Naloxone (Narcan) is an opioid antagonist that can rapidly reverse the effects of opiates by competitively binding to opioid receptors and displacing the opiates. This action can restore normal respiration and consciousness. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a non-selective beta-blocker used to manage hypertension, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid overdose. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to manage psychotic disorders, not opioid toxicity.

3. When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, which of the following steps may be appropriate when communicating with the patient?

• A. Divide the verbal communication into smaller sections and address one at a time.
• B. Communicate only with written information.
• C. Ask multiple questions in a row quickly to make sure the patient is remaining engaged.
• D. Frequently communicate without assistive devices to help the patient improve their hearing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, it is important to divide verbal communication into smaller sections and address them one at a time. This approach helps the patient follow along more easily and understand the information being conveyed. While using written information can also be beneficial, solely relying on written communication may not always be practical or feasible for effective interaction. Asking multiple questions quickly can overwhelm the patient and hinder their ability to process each question adequately. It is essential to give the patient sufficient time to comprehend and respond. Additionally, frequently communicating without assistive devices is not recommended. Using assistive devices can significantly enhance the patient's ability to hear and understand, promoting better communication and patient care.

4. The mother of a toddler asks the nurse when she will know that her child is ready to start toilet training. The nurse tells the mother that which observation is a sign of physical readiness?

• A. The child no longer has temper tantrums.
• B. The child can remove his or her own clothing.
• C. The child has been walking for 2 years.
• D. The child can eat using a fork and knife.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Signs of physical readiness for toilet training include the child's ability to remove his or her own clothing. This ability indicates the child has developed the necessary fine motor skills to manage clothing during toilet training. The other choices are incorrect because temper tantrums, walking for a specific period, and using utensils are not indicators of physical readiness for toilet training.

5. A nurse is preparing to auscultate a fetal heart rate (FHR). The nurse performs the Leopold maneuvers to determine the position of the fetus and then places the fetoscope over which part of the fetus?

• A. Back of the fetus
• B. Carotid artery in the neck of the fetus
• C. Brachial area of one extremity of the fetus
• D. Chest of the fetus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse would use the Leopold maneuvers to identify the position of the fetus and determine the location of the fetal back. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is most easily heard through the fetal back because it usually lies closest to the surface of the maternal abdomen. Auscultation of the FHR over the chest, carotid artery, or brachial area is not possible due to the fetal position within the maternal abdomen. Placing the fetoscope over the carotid artery or brachial area would not yield the fetal heart rate, and the chest area is not typically used for auscultating the FHR.

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