HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider should observe most closely for drug toxicity when a client receives a medication that has which characteristic?
- A. Low bioavailability
- B. Rapid onset of action
- C. Short half-life
- D. Narrow therapeutic index
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, narrow therapeutic index. Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are defined as those drugs where small differences in dose or blood concentration may lead to serious therapeutic failures or adverse drug reactions. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the risk of drug toxicity. Low bioavailability (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug that enters the bloodstream unchanged after administration. Rapid onset of action (Choice B) and short half-life (Choice C) are characteristics related to drug effectiveness and metabolism but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of drug toxicity.
2. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl
- B. Bilirubin level of 3.0 mg/dl
- C. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
- D. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum ammonia level of 100 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated serum ammonia levels indicate significant liver dysfunction and an increased risk of worsening encephalopathy. Bilirubin level and prothrombin time are important in assessing liver function, but in the context of hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels take precedence as they directly contribute to neurological symptoms. Serum sodium level, though important, is not the primary concern when managing hepatic encephalopathy.
3. A client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet reports a weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Instruct the client to reduce fluid intake
- B. Monitor the client's intake and output
- C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
- D. Assess the client for signs of fluid overload
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet and reports a significant weight gain is to assess the client for signs of fluid overload. This step is crucial in determining the severity of the situation and guiding further treatment. In this scenario, assessing for signs of fluid overload takes priority over other actions such as instructing the client to reduce fluid intake, monitoring intake and output, or administering a diuretic. While these actions may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, the initial priority is to evaluate the client's immediate condition.
4. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse's decision to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has produced diuresis and lowered the blood pressure
- B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness
- C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
- D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When medications with a similar action are administered, an additive effect occurs that is the sum of the effects of each medication. In this case, several medications that all lower blood pressure, when administered together, resulted in hypotension.
5. After a third hospitalization 6 months ago, a client is admitted to the hospital with ascites and malnutrition. The client is drowsy but responding to verbal stimuli and reports recently spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Bruises on arms and legs
- B. Round and tight abdomen
- C. Pitting edema in lower legs
- D. Capillary refill of 8 seconds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this situation, the client's capillary refill of 8 seconds is the assessment finding that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. A capillary refill greater than 3 to 5 seconds indicates poor perfusion, which could be a sign of inadequate circulation and oxygenation. Checking capillary refill is a quick and useful way to assess peripheral perfusion. Bruises on arms and legs may indicate a bleeding disorder but are not as urgent as addressing poor perfusion. A round and tight abdomen could suggest ascites, which is already known in this case. Pitting edema in lower legs is a common finding in malnutrition and ascites but does not require immediate intervention as poor capillary refill does.
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