HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider should observe most closely for drug toxicity when a client receives a medication that has which characteristic?
- A. Low bioavailability
- B. Rapid onset of action
- C. Short half-life
- D. Narrow therapeutic index
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, narrow therapeutic index. Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are defined as those drugs where small differences in dose or blood concentration may lead to serious therapeutic failures or adverse drug reactions. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the risk of drug toxicity. Low bioavailability (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug that enters the bloodstream unchanged after administration. Rapid onset of action (Choice B) and short half-life (Choice C) are characteristics related to drug effectiveness and metabolism but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of drug toxicity.
2. When organizing home visits for the day, which older client should the home health nurse plan to visit first?
- A. A woman who takes naproxen (Naprosyn) and reports a recent onset of dark, tarry stools.
- B. A man who receives weekly injections of epoetin (Procrit) for a low serum iron level.
- C. A man with emphysema who smokes and is complaining of white patches in his mouth.
- D. A frail woman with heart failure who reported a 2-pound weight gain in the last week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dark, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Visiting this client first is crucial for prompt assessment and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent attention compared to the potential emergency indicated by dark, tarry stools.
3. The nurse is assessing a female client's blood pressure because she reported feeling dizzy. The blood pressure cuff is inflated to 140 mm Hg and as soon as the cuff is deflated a Korotkoff sound is heard. Which intervention should the nurse implement next?
- A. Wait 1 minute and palpate the systolic pressure before auscultating again.
- B. Increase the inflation pressure by 20 mm Hg and measure again.
- C. Switch to a larger cuff and repeat the measurement.
- D. Document the finding as normal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: If a Korotkoff sound is heard immediately upon deflation, it may indicate an inaccurate reading. Waiting and palpating the systolic pressure can help confirm the accuracy of the measurement. Choice A is the correct intervention because it allows the nurse to ensure the accuracy of the blood pressure reading. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the inflation pressure is not necessary in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as switching to a larger cuff is not warranted based on the information provided. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the finding as normal without further verification could lead to inaccurate information.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is complaining of chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
- C. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
- D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is the first priority in assessing for ischemia or infarction in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction. This diagnostic test provides crucial information about the heart's electrical activity and helps in identifying any acute cardiac changes. Administering oxygen therapy and nitroglycerin can be important interventions, but obtaining an ECG takes precedence as it directly assesses the client's cardiac status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is also essential, but in this scenario, assessing for cardiac indications through an ECG is the initial step.
5. In preparing assignments for the shift, which client is best for the charge nurse to assign to a practical nurse (PN)?
- A. An older client who fell yesterday and is now complaining of diplopia.
- B. An adult newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and high cholesterol.
- C. A client with pancreatic cancer who is experiencing intractable pain.
- D. An older client post-stroke who is aphasic with right-sided hemiplegia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best client for the charge nurse to assign to a practical nurse (PN) is an older client post-stroke who is aphasic with right-sided hemiplegia. This client is stable and suitable for care by a PN under supervision. Choices A, B, and C present clients with more complex and acute conditions that would require a higher level of nursing expertise and intervention.
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