HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. The unit clerk reports to the charge nurse that a healthcare provider has written several prescriptions that are illegible and it appears the healthcare provider used several unapproved abbreviations in the prescriptions. What actions should the charge nurse take?
- A. Call the healthcare provider who wrote the prescription
- B. Attempt to clarify the prescriptions with the pharmacist
- C. Administer the medications as prescribed
- D. Ask another healthcare provider for clarification
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to call the healthcare provider who wrote the illegible prescriptions. It is crucial to clarify illegible prescriptions directly with the provider to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors. Option B, attempting to clarify with the pharmacist, may lead to misinterpretation and is not the recommended first step. Administering the medications as prescribed without clarity can jeopardize patient safety, making option C incorrect. Asking another healthcare provider for clarification (option D) may not be effective as the responsibility lies with the provider who wrote the prescription.
2. During orientation, a newly hired nurse demonstrates suctioning of a tracheostomy in a skills class. After the demonstration, the supervising nurse expresses concern that the demonstrated procedure increased the client's risk for which problem?
- A. Infection
- B. Hypoxia
- C. Bleeding
- D. Bronchospasm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection. Improper suctioning techniques can introduce pathogens, increasing the risk of infection. Choice B, Hypoxia, is incorrect as it is more related to inadequate oxygen supply. Choice C, Bleeding, is not typically associated with suctioning a tracheostomy unless done too aggressively. Choice D, Bronchospasm, is not directly linked to suctioning but may occur due to other triggers in patients with sensitive airways.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Use of accessory muscles
- B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of accessory muscles. This finding indicates increased work of breathing in a client with COPD and may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the use of accessory muscles suggests that the client is in distress and struggling to breathe effectively. Oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen and does not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range for an adult and does not indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.
4. An adult male who lives alone is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter. He is unresponsive, with minimal respiratory effort, and his pupils are fixed and dilated. At the daughter's request, the client is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Offer to notify the client's minister of his condition.
- B. Determine if the client has an executed living will.
- C. Provide the family with information about palliative care.
- D. Explore the possibility of organ donation with the family.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to determine if the client has an executed living will. A living will provides guidance on the client's preferences for medical care in situations where they cannot communicate. This information is crucial in guiding the care team on how to proceed with treatment. Options A, C, and D, though important in certain circumstances, are not the highest priority in this situation where immediate decisions regarding the client's care need to be made.
5. A male client with an antisocial personality disorder is admitted to an inpatient mental health unit for multiple substance dependencies. When providing a history, the client justifies to the nurse his use of illicit drugs. Based on this pattern of behavior, this client's history is most likely to include which finding?
- A. Multiple convictions for misdemeanors and class B felonies.
- B. A history of stable employment
- C. Strong relationships with family members
- D. A pattern of seeking help when needed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Multiple convictions for misdemeanors and class B felonies. Clients with antisocial personality disorder often engage in behaviors that disregard societal rules and norms, leading to legal issues and criminal activities. This behavior is characteristic of individuals with antisocial personality disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with this disorder are less likely to have stable employment, strong family relationships, or seek help when needed due to their pattern of defiance and disregard for authority and rules.
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