Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
• C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months
• D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.

2. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for a multigravida who delivered twins and is at risk for postpartum hemorrhage?

• A. Maintain cold packs on the perineum for 24 hours.
• B. Assess the client's pain level frequently.
• C. Observe for appropriate interaction with the infants.
• D. Assess fundal tone and lochia flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing fundal tone and lochia flow is crucial in the early detection and prevention of postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal tone helps identify uterine atony, a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, while monitoring lochia flow can indicate excessive bleeding. Cold packs on the perineum, although helpful for pain and swelling, are not the priority in this situation. Pain assessment and observing interactions with infants are important but secondary to assessing for signs of postpartum hemorrhage.

3. A male client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure in the morning. The procedure cannot be completed due to early morning stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Assign a UAP to assist the client with a warm shower early in the morning.
• B. Administer anti-inflammatory medication before the procedure.
• C. Encourage the client to perform range-of-motion exercises.
• D. Reschedule the procedure for later in the day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A warm shower can help alleviate stiffness, allowing the client to be more comfortable and mobile before the procedure. This intervention promotes increased comfort and mobility, which may help the client proceed with the procedure later in the day. Administering anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) may be helpful but may take time to be effective, while range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) may be challenging for the client due to stiffness. Rescheduling the procedure (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to alleviate stiffness.

4. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker. What is the best initial response by the nurse?

• A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
• B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
• C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
• D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse when the client reports muscle weakness is to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This approach allows the nurse to gain a better understanding of the client's experience, the extent of weakness, any associated symptoms, and potential triggers. By actively listening to the client's description, the nurse can gather valuable information that will aid in a comprehensive assessment and development of a tailored care plan. Choice A is incorrect because assuming muscle weakness is solely due to aging without further assessment can lead to overlooking potential underlying causes. Choice B is incorrect as observing for signs of muscle atrophy should come after gathering information directly from the client. Choice C is incorrect as reviewing diagnostic test results should not be the initial step when the client's current experience is being shared.

5. The client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L
• B. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
• C. Serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate intervention is required to lower potassium levels. Choice B, serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL, is elevated but expected in ESRD due to impaired kidney function. Choice C, serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL, is within the normal range and not typically a priority in this situation. Choice D, hemoglobin of 10 g/dL, is slightly low but not an immediate concern for a client scheduled for hemodialysis unless significantly lower and causing severe symptoms.

Similar Questions