Nursing Elites

1. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
• B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
• C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months
• D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps determine if the client's blood is clotting appropriately. While prothrombin time (PT) is related to warfarin therapy, the INR is a more precise measure. Hemoglobin level and serum sodium level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

3. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a neurological assessment.
• B. Administer oxygen therapy.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output.
• D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a neurological assessment. In a client with chronic heart failure presenting with confusion, the priority is to assess neurological status to rule out potential causes such as hypoxia or other complications. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice B) is important but assessing the neurological status takes precedence in this scenario. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining an ECG (Choice D) may be necessary but are not the initial priority when a client presents with confusion alongside shortness of breath.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial due to the risk of developing hyperkalemia. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increase in potassium levels. Monitoring potassium helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while hemoglobin levels are relevant in assessing the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy, monitoring potassium levels is more critical in this scenario.

5. A young adult male is admitted to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). His pH is 7.25, HCO3 is 12 mEq/L, and blood glucose is 310 mg/dl. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Infuse sodium chloride 0.9% (normal saline)
• B. Prepare an emergency dose of glucagon
• C. Determine the last time the client ate
• D. Check urine for ketone bodies with a dipstick

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In DKA, restoring fluid balance with sodium chloride is a priority to address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances present in this condition. Choice B, preparing an emergency dose of glucagon, is incorrect because DKA is characterized by insulin deficiency, not glucagon deficiency. Choice C, determining the last time the client ate, is not the immediate priority in managing DKA. Choice D, checking urine for ketone bodies with a dipstick, may help confirm the diagnosis of DKA but is not the most critical intervention at this time.

Similar Questions