a 60 year old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovari
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam

1. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fever of 100.4°F is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis because it may indicate an underlying infection that requires immediate attention. Elevated body temperature can be a sign of systemic infection, which can quickly worsen in individuals with compromised renal function. Monitoring for infection is crucial in ESRD patients to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as immediately concerning in this context. While variations in blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate should be monitored, they are not as indicative of a potentially severe issue as an unexplained fever in this scenario.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a hemodialysis session. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum sodium. In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for hemodialysis, monitoring serum sodium levels closely is essential. Hemodialysis can cause rapid shifts in sodium levels, leading to electrolyte imbalances. While serum potassium (choice A) is important to monitor in CKD, it is not the most crucial before hemodialysis. Serum creatinine (choice B) is an indicator of kidney function but is not the most immediate concern before hemodialysis. Serum chloride (choice D) is not typically the primary electrolyte of concern in CKD patients before hemodialysis.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation is the first priority in managing a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels helps in determining the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy and if adjustments are needed. Elevating the head of the bed can help with breathing but is not the first priority. Administering oxygen therapy as prescribed is important, but assessing the current oxygen saturation comes before administering more oxygen. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample may provide valuable information, but it is not the initial intervention needed in this situation.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peaked T waves on the ECG. In hyperkalemia, elevated potassium levels can affect the heart's electrical activity, leading to changes on the ECG such as peaked T waves. This finding is concerning as it can progress to serious cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. Bradycardia (choice A) and decreased deep tendon reflexes (choice D) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. While muscle weakness (choice B) can occur in hyperkalemia due to its effect on neuromuscular function, the most concerning assessment finding indicating the need for immediate intervention in this scenario is peaked T waves on the ECG.

Similar Questions

The nurse is preparing to administer an IV dose of ciprofloxacin to a client with a urinary tract infection. Which client data requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
A female client with type 2 diabetes reports that she has been taking her medications as prescribed but her blood glucose levels remain elevated. Which action should the nurse take first?
A gravida 2 para 1, at 38-weeks gestation, scheduled for a repeat cesarean section in one week, is brought to the labor and delivery unit complaining of contractions every 10 minutes. While assessing the client, the client's mother enters the labor suite and says in a loud voice, 'I've had 8 children and I know she's in labor. I want her to have her cesarean section right now!' What action should the nurse take?
A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning?
A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses