Nursing Elites

1. Following routine diagnostic tests, a client who is symptom-free is diagnosed with Paget's disease. Client teaching should be directed toward what important goal for this client?

• A. Maintain adequate cardiac output.
• B. Promote adequate tissue perfusion.
• C. Promote rest and sleep.
• D. Reduce the risk for injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Paget's disease, bone remodeling is affected, leading to increased risk for fractures. Therefore, the primary goal of client teaching should focus on reducing the risk for injury. Choices A and B are not directly related to the primary concern of Paget's disease, which is bone fractures. Choice C, promoting rest and sleep, is important for overall health but is not the priority when considering the specific risks associated with Paget's disease.

2. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The nurse notices the client has more energy and is giving her belongings away. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Support the client by praising her progress.
• B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
• C. Reassure the client about the effectiveness of antidepressant drugs.
• D. Advise the client to keep her belongings for discharge.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself because increased energy and giving away belongings can be signs of suicidal ideation. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of self-harm. Choice C is incorrect because reassurance about medication effectiveness may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the client's current behavior without addressing the underlying concern of potential self-harm.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and can signal respiratory failure in a client with COPD. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation of 90% indicates some oxygenation impairment but may not necessitate immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress. Inspiratory crackles may be present in pneumonia but do not require immediate intervention compared to the increased work of breathing indicated by the use of accessory muscles.

4. A client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet reports a weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Instruct the client to reduce fluid intake
• B. Monitor the client's intake and output
• C. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
• D. Assess the client for signs of fluid overload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with heart failure who is on a low sodium diet and reports a significant weight gain is to assess the client for signs of fluid overload. This step is crucial in determining the severity of the situation and guiding further treatment. In this scenario, assessing for signs of fluid overload takes priority over other actions such as instructing the client to reduce fluid intake, monitoring intake and output, or administering a diuretic. While these actions may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, the initial priority is to evaluate the client's immediate condition.

5. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and the interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion.
• B. Have the client sign the consent form.
• C. Document the conversation and witness the consent.
• D. Ask the client directly if she has any questions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion. Verbal consent is not sufficient; it is crucial to ensure that the client fully comprehends the risks and benefits of the surgical procedure. By asking the interpreter to provide a detailed explanation of the discussion, the nurse can confirm that the client has given informed consent. Having the client sign the consent form (Choice B) without ensuring complete understanding may lead to potential misunderstandings. Documenting the conversation and witnessing the consent (Choice C) is not enough to guarantee the client's comprehension. Asking the client directly if she has any questions (Choice D) may not be effective if language barriers persist.

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