HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
- C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
- D. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client receiving erythropoietin therapy as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. High potassium levels can lead to severe cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other laboratory values, though abnormal, do not present immediate life-threatening risks as hyperkalemia does.
2. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment
- B. Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours.
- C. Have the mother check the child's temperature every 4 hours for the next 24 hours
- D. Transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to implement is to cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment to prevent infection. In cases of puncture wounds like stepping on a rusty nail, the immediate concern is to reduce the risk of infection. Providing teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours is important as well, but it should come after the wound is cleansed. Checking the child's temperature and transferring to the emergency department for a gamma globulin injection are not the immediate priorities in this scenario.
3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Headache
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Low urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Erythropoietin can increase red blood cell production, leading to thicker blood, which in turn can elevate blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure in this scenario may indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD patients and can be expected with erythropoietin therapy. Headache (choice B) can occur but is less concerning than elevated blood pressure in this context. Low urine output (choice D) is a significant finding in CKD, but in a client receiving erythropoietin, elevated blood pressure takes precedence due to its potential for immediate adverse effects.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
- C. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
- D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dl
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is concerning in a client with CKD as it indicates hyperkalemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, particularly in patients with impaired kidney function. Serum sodium, creatinine, and blood glucose levels, while important, are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia in this context.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
- B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
- C. Check the client's blood glucose level
- D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed should be the first intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and unresponsive. This intervention is crucial in managing hyperglycemia by helping to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (Choice A) would worsen hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the priority when dealing with an unresponsive client with severe hyperglycemia. Immediate dialysis preparation (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.
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