HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam
1. A client who had a gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) evacuated 2 days ago is being... What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Teach the client about the use of a home pregnancy test.
- B. Schedule weekly home visits to draw hCG values.
- C. Schedule a 5-week follow-up with the healthcare provider.
- D. Begin chemotherapy administration during the first home visit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement is to schedule weekly home visits to draw hCG values. Monitoring hCG levels is crucial in detecting potential complications like choriocarcinoma following GTD evacuation. Teaching about home pregnancy tests (Choice A) may not be as immediate and critical as monitoring hCG levels. A 5-week follow-up appointment (Choice C) may be too delayed for close monitoring. Initiating chemotherapy (Choice D) without appropriate hCG monitoring and evaluation is not recommended as the first-line intervention.
2. A nurse is teaching a client with type 2 diabetes about the importance of foot care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should check my feet every day for cuts or blisters.
- B. I need to moisturize my feet daily, especially between my toes.
- C. I should wear comfortable shoes that fit well.
- D. I should avoid walking barefoot, even indoors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Moisturizing between the toes can create a moist environment that fosters fungal infections. Checking the feet daily for cuts or blisters (choice A) is correct in diabetes management to prevent complications. Wearing comfortable shoes that fit well (choice C) and avoiding walking barefoot (choice D) are also essential in preventing foot ulcers and injuries in diabetic patients.
3. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Echocardiogram
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. This test provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity. Choice B, Chest X-ray, is used to visualize the structures of the chest, including the heart and lungs, but it does not directly assess for cardiac ischemia. Choice C, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), measures the oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood and assesses acid-base balance, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D, Echocardiogram, is an ultrasound of the heart that provides information about the heart's structure and function, but it is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing cardiac ischemia in this situation.
4. Before a dressing change to his legs, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the patient to stay at the bedside
- B. Use distraction techniques to reduce pain
- C. Maintain strict aseptic technique
- D. Place a drape over the burn area
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining strict aseptic technique is crucial before a dressing change for burn patients to prevent infection. Encouraging the patient to stay at the bedside, using distraction techniques, or placing a drape over the burn area are not as critical as ensuring asepsis in this situation.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Headache
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
- C. Elevated liver enzymes
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.
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