Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Crackles in the lungs
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are concerning in a client with chronic heart failure as they may indicate liver congestion or worsening heart failure, requiring immediate intervention. While crackles in the lungs and shortness of breath are common in heart failure, elevated liver enzymes specifically point towards possible liver involvement due to heart failure. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute can be expected in a client with heart failure due to compensatory mechanisms, but elevated liver enzymes signal a more severe condition.

2. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is showing signs of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in his care plan?

• A. Maintain the client NPO during the diuresis phase.
• B. Evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
• C. Observe the urine character for sedimentation and cloudy appearance.
• D. Monitor for the onset of polyuria greater than 150 ml/hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan is to evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations. This is crucial in monitoring renal function and detecting any worsening renal impairment. Option A is not directly related to managing renal function in this case. Option C focuses more on urinary characteristics rather than renal function monitoring. Option D addresses polyuria, which is an excessive urine output, but it does not specifically address the need for evaluating renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.

3. In caring for a client with a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate through the right cephalic vein, the nurse assesses that the client is lethargic with a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 118 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What assessment should the nurse perform next?

• A. Note the appearance and patency of the client's peripheral IV site.
• B. Palpate the volume of the client's right radial pulse.
• C. Auscultate the client's breath sounds bilaterally.
• D. Observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of potential opioid overdose, such as lethargy, hypotension, tachycardia, and bradypnea. The next assessment the nurse should perform is to observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe. This evaluation is crucial in determining if the client is receiving an excessive amount of morphine, leading to the observed symptoms. Checking the PCA pump syringe will provide essential information to address the client's condition promptly and prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation as they do not directly address the potential cause of the client's symptoms related to morphine administration.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with CKD as it indicates severe hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Serum sodium levels within the normal range (135 mEq/L) are not immediately concerning. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL may indicate impaired kidney function but does not require immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL is within normal limits and does not directly correlate with hyperkalemia in this scenario.

5. Following routine diagnostic tests, a client who is symptom-free is diagnosed with Paget's disease. Client teaching should be directed toward what important goal for this client?

• A. Maintain adequate cardiac output.
• B. Promote adequate tissue perfusion.
• C. Promote rest and sleep.
• D. Reduce the risk for injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Paget's disease, bone remodeling is affected, leading to increased risk for fractures. Therefore, the primary goal of client teaching should focus on reducing the risk for injury. Choices A and B are not directly related to the primary concern of Paget's disease, which is bone fractures. Choice C, promoting rest and sleep, is important for overall health but is not the priority when considering the specific risks associated with Paget's disease.

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