HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Chest X-ray
- B. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- C. Echocardiogram
- D. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Echocardiogram. An echocardiogram should be performed first to assess ventricular function and evaluate the cause of shortness of breath and crackles in a client with heart failure. An echocardiogram provides valuable information about the heart's structure and function, helping to identify potential issues related to heart failure. Chest X-ray (Choice A) may be done to assess for changes in heart size or fluid in the lungs but does not directly assess heart function. Arterial blood gases (Choice B) may provide information about oxygenation but do not directly evaluate heart function. An electrocardiogram (Choice D) assesses the heart's electrical activity but does not provide detailed information about ventricular function, which is crucial in heart failure management.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles is most concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen as it indicates increased work of breathing, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is acceptable in a client with COPD. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles may be present in clients with COPD due to underlying lung changes but do not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.
3. A client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation via a triple-lumen suprapubic catheter that was placed during a prostatectomy. Which report by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Leakage around the catheter insertion site.
- B. Pink-tinged urine in the drainage bag.
- C. Client reports discomfort at the catheter site.
- D. Decreased urine output in the last hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Leakage around the catheter insertion site may indicate a problem with the catheter placement or function, requiring immediate intervention. Pink-tinged urine in the drainage bag is expected due to the continuous bladder irrigation. Discomfort at the catheter site is common after the procedure. Decreased urine output in the last hour may be due to the continuous bladder irrigation and doesn't require immediate intervention.
4. The charge nurse of the critical care unit informed at the beginning of the shift that a less than optimal number of registered nurses would be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse?
- A. A 34-year-old admitted today after an emergency appendectomy who has a peripheral intravenous catheter and a Foley catheter.
- B. A 48-year-old marathon runner with a central venous catheter experiencing nausea and vomiting due to electrolyte disturbance following a race.
- C. A 63-year-old chain smoker with chronic bronchitis receiving oxygen via nasal cannula and a saline-locked peripheral intravenous catheter.
- D. An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur with a Foley catheter and soft wrist restraints applied.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse because they are at the highest risk for injury and complications. The client's age, diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease, and the presence of a newly fractured femur along with the Foley catheter and wrist restraints indicate a need for close monitoring and care. Choice A is less critical as the client is stable post-appendectomy. Choice B, though experiencing symptoms, is not at the same level of risk as the client in Choice D. Choice C, while requiring oxygen support, does not have the same level of acuity and complexity as the client in Choice D.
5. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?
- A. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
- B. Oxygen saturation rate of 88%
- C. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute
- D. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.
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