HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Auscultate for renal bruits
- B. Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen
- C. Use a dipstick to measure for urinary ketones
- D. Begin to strain the client's urine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: This elderly client is presenting symptoms consistent with a urinary tract infection (UTI), such as confusion, nausea, dysuria, urgency, and incontinence. The best course of action for the nurse is to obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen. This specimen will help identify the causative agent of the UTI, allowing for targeted treatment with an appropriate anti-infective agent. Auscultating for renal bruits (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario as the client's symptoms point towards a UTI rather than a renal issue. Using a dipstick to measure for urinary ketones (Choice C) is not relevant in the context of UTI symptoms. Beginning to strain the client's urine (Choice D) would not address the need to identify the causative agent for targeted treatment.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with Diabetes Insipidus. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Excessive thirst
- C. Elevated heart rate
- D. Poor skin turgor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypernatremia. In a client with Diabetes Insipidus, hypernatremia, an elevated sodium level in the blood, can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion, seizures, or coma. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent these serious complications. Excessive thirst (choice B) is a common symptom of Diabetes Insipidus but does not require immediate intervention. Elevated heart rate (choice C) and poor skin turgor (choice D) are important assessments but are not as critical as hypernatremia in this context.
3. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner before performing catheter care. The UAP rubs both hands thoroughly for 2 minutes while standing at the bedside. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the UAP to remain in the client's room until the procedure is completed.
- B. Explain that the hand rub can be completed in less than 2 minutes.
- C. Inform the UAP that handwashing helps to promote better asepsis.
- D. Determine why the UAP was not wearing gloves in the client's room.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Explaining that hand rubs can be effective with less time allows the UAP to perform the procedure more efficiently while maintaining asepsis. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to remain in the client's room until the procedure is completed. Choice C is incorrect as the UAP was using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner, not handwashing. Choice D is incorrect as the scenario does not mention any issue with glove usage, so it is not relevant to the situation at hand.
4. A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your mother and father will be here soon. Talk to them about that.'
- B. Why do you want to know about what will happen to your body when you die?'
- C. The heart will stop beating and you will stop breathing.'
- D. Are you concerned about where your spirit will go?'
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response when a terminally ill child asks about what will happen to their body when they die is to provide a truthful and straightforward answer. Choice C, 'The heart will stop beating and you will stop breathing,' is the best response because it offers a simple and honest explanation without delving into spiritual or emotional aspects that may be confusing or distressing to the child. Choices A and D deflect the question and do not address the child's inquiry directly. Choice B, 'Why do you want to know about what will happen to your body when you die?' may come across as dismissive or evasive, rather than providing the clear information the child is seeking.
5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
- D. Muscle weakness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are a critical finding in hyperkalemia as they indicate potential life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent cardiac complications such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Bradycardia, decreased deep tendon reflexes, and muscle weakness are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and do not pose the same level of immediate risk to the client's life.
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