HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Auscultate for renal bruits
- B. Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen
- C. Use a dipstick to measure for urinary ketones
- D. Begin to strain the client's urine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: This elderly client is presenting symptoms consistent with a urinary tract infection (UTI), such as confusion, nausea, dysuria, urgency, and incontinence. The best course of action for the nurse is to obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen. This specimen will help identify the causative agent of the UTI, allowing for targeted treatment with an appropriate anti-infective agent. Auscultating for renal bruits (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario as the client's symptoms point towards a UTI rather than a renal issue. Using a dipstick to measure for urinary ketones (Choice C) is not relevant in the context of UTI symptoms. Beginning to strain the client's urine (Choice D) would not address the need to identify the causative agent for targeted treatment.
2. The unit clerk reports to the charge nurse that a healthcare provider has written several prescriptions that are illegible and it appears the healthcare provider used several unapproved abbreviations in the prescriptions. What actions should the charge nurse take?
- A. Call the healthcare provider who wrote the prescription
- B. Attempt to clarify the prescriptions with the pharmacist
- C. Administer the medications as prescribed
- D. Ask another healthcare provider for clarification
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to take is to call the healthcare provider who wrote the illegible prescriptions. It is crucial to clarify illegible prescriptions directly with the provider to ensure patient safety and prevent medication errors. Option B, attempting to clarify with the pharmacist, may lead to misinterpretation and is not the recommended first step. Administering the medications as prescribed without clarity can jeopardize patient safety, making option C incorrect. Asking another healthcare provider for clarification (option D) may not be effective as the responsibility lies with the provider who wrote the prescription.
3. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum glucose
- C. Serum triglycerides
- D. Serum calcium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), the nurse should monitor serum triglycerides closely. Acute pancreatitis can lead to fat malabsorption, making the client susceptible to hypertriglyceridemia. Monitoring serum triglycerides is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperlipidemia. While monitoring serum potassium, glucose, and calcium levels is also essential in various conditions, in this scenario, the primary concern is the risk of developing hypertriglyceridemia due to fat malabsorption.
4. A male client with diabetes mellitus type 2, who is taking pioglitazone PO daily, reports to the nurse the recent onset of nausea, accompanied by dark-colored urine, and a yellowish cast to his skin. What instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms.
- B. Discontinue the medication and follow up with a healthcare provider.
- C. Increase fluid intake and monitor urine color.
- D. Continue taking the medication and report any changes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Seek immediate medical assistance to evaluate the cause of these symptoms.' The symptoms described by the client, including nausea, dark-colored urine, and yellowish skin, are indicative of possible liver toxicity, a serious side effect of pioglitazone. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation is necessary to assess the severity of the condition and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B advises discontinuing the medication without seeking immediate medical assistance, which could delay necessary treatment; C focuses solely on increasing fluid intake and monitoring urine color, overlooking the urgency of the situation; and D suggests continuing the medication when prompt evaluation is crucial in this scenario.
5. A client who developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) associated with small carcinoma of the lung is preparing for discharge. When teaching the client about self-management with demeclocycline (Declomycin), the nurse should instruct the client to report which condition to the healthcare provider?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Muscle cramping
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle cramping. SIADH causes dilutional hyponatremia due to increased ADH release. Demeclocycline is used to block the action of ADH. Muscle cramping can indicate electrolyte imbalances related to hyponatremia, which should be reported to the healthcare provider. Insomnia, increased appetite, and anxiety are not typically associated with the side effects or complications of demeclocycline or SIADH.
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